CliffsTestPrep Regents Earth Science: The Physical Setting Workbook

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CliffsTestPrep

®

Regents Earth Science: The Physical Setting Workbook An American BookWorks Corporation Project

Contributing Authors Kevin DiBitetto Garden City High School Garden City, New York Dominic Esposito Garden City High School Garden City, New York

Christopher A. Taylor Binghamton High School Binghamton, New York

Publisher’s Acknowledgments Editorial

Composition

Project Editor: Kelly Dobbs Henthorne

Proofreader: Henry Lazarek

Acquisition Editor: Greg Tubach

Wiley Publishing, Inc. Composition Services

CliffsTestPrep® Regents Earth Science: The Physical Setting Workbook Published by: Wiley Publishing, Inc. 111 River Street Hoboken, NJ 07030-5774 www.wiley.com

Note: If you purchased this book without a cover, you should be aware that this book is stolen property. It was reported as “unsold and destroyed” to the publisher, and neither the author nor the publisher has received any payment for this “stripped book.”

Copyright © 2008 Wiley, Hoboken, NJ Published by Wiley, Hoboken, NJ Published simultaneously in Canada Library of Congress Cataloging-in-Publication data is available from the publisher upon request. ISBN: 978-0-470-16779-3 Printed in the United States of America 10 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 No part of this publication may be reproduced, stored in a retrieval system, or transmitted in any form or by any means, electronic, mechanical, photocopying, recording, scanning, or otherwise, except as permitted under Sections 107 or 108 of the 1976 United States Copyright Act, without either the prior written permission of the Publisher, or authorization through payment of the appropriate per-copy fee to the Copyright Clearance Center, 222 Rosewood Drive, Danvers, MA 01923, 978-750-8400, fax 978-646-8600, or on the web at www.copyright.com. Requests to the Publisher for permission should be addressed to the Legal Department, Wiley Publishing, Inc., 10475 Crosspoint Blvd., Indianapolis, IN 46256, 317-572-3447, fax 317-572-4355, or online at http://www.wiley.com/go/permissions. The publisher and the authors make no representations or warranties with respect to the accuracy or completeness of the contents of this work and specifically disclaim all warranties, including without limitation warranties of fitness for a particular purpose. No warranty may be created or extended by sales or promotional materials. The advice and strategies contained herein may not be suitable for every situation. This work is sold with the understanding that the publisher is not engaged in rendering legal, accounting, or other professional services. If professional assistance is required, the services of a competent professional person should be sought. Neither the publisher nor the authors shall be liable for damages arising herefrom. The fact that an organization or Website is referred to in this work as a citation and/or a potential source of further information does not mean that the authors or the publisher endorses the information the organization or Website may provide or recommendations it may make. Further, readers should be aware that Internet Websites listed in this work may have changed or disappeared between when this work was written and when it is read. Trademarks: Wiley, the Wiley Publishing logo, CliffsNotes, the CliffsNotes logo, Cliffs, CliffsAP, CliffsComplete, CliffsQuickReview, CliffsStudySolver, CliffsTestPrep, CliffsNote-a-Day, cliffsnotes.com, and all related trademarks, logos, and trade dress are trademarks or registered trademarks of John Wiley & Sons, Inc. and/or its affiliates. All other trademarks are the property of their respective owners. Wiley Publishing, Inc. is not associated with any product or vendor mentioned in this book. For general information on our other products and services or to obtain technical support, please contact our Customer Care Department within the U.S. at 800-762-2974, outside the U.S. at 317-572-3993, or fax 317-572-4002. Wiley also publishes its books in a variety of electronic formats. Some content that appears in print may not be available in electronic books. For more information about Wiley products, please visit our web site at www.wiley.com.

CliffsTestPrep

®

Regents Earth Science: The Physical Setting Workbook An American BookWorks Corporation Project

Contributing Authors Kevin DiBitetto Garden City High School Garden City, New York Dominic Esposito Garden City High School Garden City, New York

Christopher A. Taylor Binghamton High School Binghamton, New York

Publisher’s Acknowledgments Editorial

Composition

Project Editor: Kelly Dobbs Henthorne

Proofreader: Henry Lazarek

Acquisition Editor: Greg Tubach

Wiley Publishing, Inc. Composition Services

CliffsTestPrep® Regents Earth Science: The Physical Setting Workbook Published by: Wiley Publishing, Inc. 111 River Street Hoboken, NJ 07030-5774 www.wiley.com

Note: If you purchased this book without a cover, you should be aware that this book is stolen property. It was reported as “unsold and destroyed” to the publisher, and neither the author nor the publisher has received any payment for this “stripped book.”

Copyright © 2008 Wiley, Hoboken, NJ Published by Wiley, Hoboken, NJ Published simultaneously in Canada Library of Congress Cataloging-in-Publication data is available from the publisher upon request. ISBN: 978-0-470-16779-3 Printed in the United States of America 10 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 No part of this publication may be reproduced, stored in a retrieval system, or transmitted in any form or by any means, electronic, mechanical, photocopying, recording, scanning, or otherwise, except as permitted under Sections 107 or 108 of the 1976 United States Copyright Act, without either the prior written permission of the Publisher, or authorization through payment of the appropriate per-copy fee to the Copyright Clearance Center, 222 Rosewood Drive, Danvers, MA 01923, 978-750-8400, fax 978-646-8600, or on the web at www.copyright.com. Requests to the Publisher for permission should be addressed to the Legal Department, Wiley Publishing, Inc., 10475 Crosspoint Blvd., Indianapolis, IN 46256, 317-572-3447, fax 317-572-4355, or online at http://www.wiley.com/go/permissions. The publisher and the authors make no representations or warranties with respect to the accuracy or completeness of the contents of this work and specifically disclaim all warranties, including without limitation warranties of fitness for a particular purpose. No warranty may be created or extended by sales or promotional materials. The advice and strategies contained herein may not be suitable for every situation. This work is sold with the understanding that the publisher is not engaged in rendering legal, accounting, or other professional services. If professional assistance is required, the services of a competent professional person should be sought. Neither the publisher nor the authors shall be liable for damages arising herefrom. The fact that an organization or Website is referred to in this work as a citation and/or a potential source of further information does not mean that the authors or the publisher endorses the information the organization or Website may provide or recommendations it may make. Further, readers should be aware that Internet Websites listed in this work may have changed or disappeared between when this work was written and when it is read. Trademarks: Wiley, the Wiley Publishing logo, CliffsNotes, the CliffsNotes logo, Cliffs, CliffsAP, CliffsComplete, CliffsQuickReview, CliffsStudySolver, CliffsTestPrep, CliffsNote-a-Day, cliffsnotes.com, and all related trademarks, logos, and trade dress are trademarks or registered trademarks of John Wiley & Sons, Inc. and/or its affiliates. All other trademarks are the property of their respective owners. Wiley Publishing, Inc. is not associated with any product or vendor mentioned in this book. For general information on our other products and services or to obtain technical support, please contact our Customer Care Department within the U.S. at 800-762-2974, outside the U.S. at 317-572-3993, or fax 317-572-4002. Wiley also publishes its books in a variety of electronic formats. Some content that appears in print may not be available in electronic books. For more information about Wiley products, please visit our web site at www.wiley.com.

Table of Contents Introduction. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1 About This Book . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1 Organization of the Test and Scoring. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3 The Multiple-Choice Format. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3 The Open-Response Format. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4

2001 Earth Science Reference Tables . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 6 Observation and Measurement . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 23 Multiple-Choice Questions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 23 Open-Ended Questions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 28

Measuring the Earth. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 45 Multiple-Choice Questions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 45 Open-Ended Questions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 57

Minerals and Rocks . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 65 Multiple-Choice Questions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 65 Open-Ended Questions. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 81

The Dynamic Crust. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 89 Multiple-Choice Questions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 89 Open-Ended Questions. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 102

Surface Processes and Landscapes . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 115 Multiple-Choice Questions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 115 Open-Ended Questions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 134

Geologic History . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 141 Multiple-Choice Questions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 141 Open-Ended Questions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 154

Meteorology . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 163 Multiple-Choice Questions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 163 Open-Ended Questions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 183

The Water Cycle and Climates . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 191 Multiple-Choice Questions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 191 Open-Ended Questions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 199

CliffsTestPrep Regents Earth Science: The Physical Setting Workbook

Astronomy . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 205 Multiple-Choice Questions. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 205 Open-Ended Questions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 220

Self-Evaluation Test with Answer Explanations . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 229 Answer Sheet . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 229 Self-Evaluation Test . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 231 Answer Key . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 270 Answer Explanations . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 271

iv

Introduction About This Book Most examinations are not difficult—as long as you’re properly prepared. The New York State Earth Science Regents Examination is not an easy test, but we’ve tried to create a unique book for you that will help you prepare for this exam in a logical manner. Why is it unique? Instead of presenting pages and pages of review material that you’ve likely covered in class anyway, this book (and the accompanying series) focuses solely on the test questions themselves. It has long been accepted that the more you practice on the types of questions that will appear on the actual examination, the better you will do on the final test. Therefore, what we’ve done for you in this book is present you with hundreds of questions and answers—all from previous Regents exams. To present these questions in a logical manner, we’ve divided the book into chapters based on the types of questions that you will find on the actual Earth Science Exam. You will then find all of the same types of questions in a chapter together so you can practice answering them as you go along. We’ve provided the answer explanations following each question to help reinforce your knowledge. Read the question, answer it to the best of your ability, and then immediately check the answer to see whether it’s correct. We’ve tried to focus on the correct answers here, although when a question might be somewhat confusing, we’ve also explained why the other answers are incorrect. In most instances the correct answers are factual, and therefore, if you get the correct answer, there is no need to explain why the other answers are incorrect. In the open-response questions, we’ve tried to explain the answers in clear, understandable terms. We’ve divided the book into nine major sections based on the requirements of the actual Earth Science Regents. Within each topic, we’ve also included the subtopics that are normally covered on the exam, and you will find each answer coded by this subtopic. By using these subtopics, you can quickly determine where you need additional help. Following are the nine major sections of the book, including the covered subtopics. 1. Observation and Measurement Rate of Change Density Percent Deviation Graphs 2. Measuring the Earth Topographic Maps Landscapes Latitude and Longitude

1

CliffsTestPrep Regents Earth Science: The Physical Setting Workbook 3. Minerals and Rocks Minerals Igneous Rocks Sedimentary Rocks Metamorphic Rocks 4. The Dynamic Crust Earthquakes Earth’s Interior Plate Tectonics and Sea Floor Spreading 5. Surface Processes and Landscapes Landscapes Weathering Erosion Deposition Groundwater Glaciers Soil Porosity, Permeability, Capillarity 6. Geologic History Origin of the Solar System Fossil Evidence Absolute Dating Relative Dating Geologic History of NYS 7. Meteorology Weather Atmosphere Hurricanes and Tornadoes Air Masses Atmospheric Energy Fronts 8. The Water Cycle and Climates Ocean Currents Energy Sources for Earth Systems Factors Affecting Climates Phase Changes

2

Introduction 9. Astronomy The Solar System Stellar Astronomy Earth’s Motions and Their Effects Celestial Spheres Lunar Motions and Their Effects Origins of the Universe As you go through the book, it’s up to you to answer the question before you look at the answers. You’re “on your honor” to test yourself. There’s no grade at the end, of course, so if you look at the answers first, you’re only cheating yourself. You will want to practice answering as many of the test questions as possible.

Organization of the Test and Scoring The Earth Science exam consists of four sections and covers a wide range of the topics that you’ve studied throughout the year. Part A consists of 35 multiple-choice questions and is worth 30 to 40 percent of the exam. Part B is comprised of both multiple-choice questions and open-response questions. Depending on the number of questions in this section, it is worth between 25 and 30 points. Part C consists of open-response (constructed-response) questions, and like Part B, there are a variable number of questions from test to test. This section is worth between 15 and 25 points. The last part of the test, Part D, is the Laboratory Performance section of the exam and is worth 10 points. Since the number of questions throughout the sections varies, the scoring also will vary, based on the number of questions. This number is a raw score and does not add up to 100 percent, but instead, will be converted into a final score. Of course, the bottom line is that the higher your raw score, the higher your final score will be.

The Multiple-Choice Format Most of the standardized tests that you’ve probably taken throughout your educational career have contained multiple-choice questions. For some reason, these types of questions give a large percentage of test takers a difficult time. If you approach these questions carefully, they are easier than you think. Let’s analyze the concept of the multiple-choice question. Keep in mind that these questions are created to test your abilities to recognize the correct answer from four choices, at least on this specific exam. Other tests may have more or fewer choices. Questions are comprised of several parts: 1. The question stem 2. The correct choice 3. Distracters

3

CliffsTestPrep Regents Earth Science: The Physical Setting Workbook As test-item writers create questions, they normally approach it as follows: ■ ■ ■

One choice is absolutely correct. One or two choices are absolutely incorrect (distracters). One or two choices may be similar to the correct answer, but might contain some information that is not quite accurate or on target, or even might not answer the specific question (distracters).

How do you approach these questions? First, read the question and see whether you know the answer. If you know it automatically, then you can look at the choices and select the correct one. But keep in mind that the answers to the multiple-choice questions on the Earth Science exam are based on specific material that you may have read or listened to. So it is important to keep this in mind as you go through the passages. Do not bring in any outside knowledge. Just focus on the question and the material on which it is based. The easiest way to answer a multiple-choice question is the time-honored approach of process of elimination—especially if you don’t know the answer right from the start. You start by eliminating choices that do not seem logical, or those that you know immediately are incorrect. If you can start by eliminating one of those choices, you now have only three choices left. You’ve reduced your odds of selecting the correct answer from one out of four (25 percent) to one out of three (33.33 percent), which is a lot better. Can you eliminate another answer choice? Perhaps one doesn’t sound quite right, or it doesn’t seem to pertain to the passage you just read. If you can eliminate another choice, you’ve increased your odds to one out of two (50 percent). Now, unless you know the correct answer, you can guess. Pay attention to words like always, never, or not. Most things in the world are not always or never, and you should be careful if a question asks you to choose which of the choices is NOT . . .! Watch the wording also on questions that state “All are correct EXCEPT . . .!”

The Open-Response Format The open-response (or constructed response) questions appear in many forms throughout Parts B, C, and D, and these formats vary throughout the years. We have tried to present a wide-range of these questions so that you’ll be prepared for any eventuality. You may be asked to read a passage and interpret it. The question will likely ask you to base your answers on the passage as well as your knowledge of Earth Science. You will also be given graphs, maps, or charts, and asked to interpret them, organize and/or plot data, and answer questions based on the reorganized data. Other questions will present illustrations and ask you several questions so that you can demonstrate your understanding of the illustration presented, and utilize your knowledge of the subject in order to correctly answer the questions. Unlike the multiplechoice questions in Part A, these are NOT fact-based questions and will include the material that you’ve covered throughout the course.

4

Introduction As we stated in the beginning of this introduction, the Earth Science exam can be difficult, but as long as you read carefully and follow the instructions throughout—and most important—understand the material, you should be able to do well on the exam. Practice answering all of the questions in the book to become familiar with the style and approach that you’ll find on the actual exam. Check your answers as you go through the material. Try to determine what needs further study. The wealth of questions and answers presented here represent almost all of the material that you’ve studied throughout the year and should serve as an ideal review of the subject. Finally, take the practice test at the end of the book and again, check your answers. It’s the best way to evaluate how far you’ve come and how prepared you are for the actual test. Don’t panic if you had problems with this test. Go back to the subjects and reread the earlier questions in the appropriate chapters. If you still don’t understand the material, check your textbook or ask your teacher. Remember that the more you practice, the better you will do on your actual test. But now it’s time to start working. Good luck!

5

CliffsTestPrep Regents Earth Science: The Physical Setting Workbook

2001 Earth Science Reference Tables Use this edition of the Earth Science Reference Tables when appropriate for both the subject-specific practice questions and for the Self-Evaluation Test with Answer Explanations at the end of this book. These reference tables are provided with your test booklet when taking the Earth Science exam. cm 1

PHYSICAL CONSTANTS Specific Heats of Common Materials

Radioactive Decay Data DISINTEGRATION

K

Uranium-238

U

Rubidium-87

Rb

40

40

Ar 40 Ca

238

Pb

87

Sr

5.7 × 10

Water

9

1.3 × 10

4.5 × 10

87

4.9 × 10

10

0.5 1.0 0.5 0.24 0.20 0.19 0.11 0.09 0.03

8

Properties of Water ............... ............

Energy gained during vaporization

........

Density at 3.98°C

....

..........................

80 calories/gram

540 calories/gram

11

Energy released during condensation

80 calories/gram

10

Energy released during freezing

9

Energy gained during melting

7

Dry air Basalt Granite Iron Copper Lead

9

206

{

SPECIFIC HEAT (calories/gram • C°)

6

Potassium-40

N

solid liquid gas

5

C

MATERIAL

3

4

Carbon-14

14

3

14

HALF-LIFE (years)

2

RADIOACTIVE ISOTOPE

540 calories/gram 1.00 gram/milliliter

12 13 14

EQUATIONS

15

Eccentricity of an ellipse

eccentricity = distance between foci length of major axis

Gradient

gradient =

Rate of change

rate of change =

Density of a substance

density =

17

deviation (%) =

16

difference from accepted value × 100 accepted value

Percent deviation from accepted value

18

change in field value distance

19

change in field value time

20

mass volume

21 22

EURYPTERUS

23

2001 EDITION

24

This edition of the Earth Science Reference Tables should be used in the classroom beginning in the 2000–2001 school year. The first examination for which these tables will be used is the January 2001 Regents Examination in Earth Science.

New York State Fossil

25

6

LAKE ERIE

GRENVILLE PROVINCE (HIGHLANDS)

AU TE A PL KEY

) DS AN L P (U

TUG HILL PLATEAU

AW

.L ST

International Boundary

State Boundary

Landscape Region Boundary

L

ND

S

THE CATSKILLS

ADIRONDACK MOUNTAINS

CE

N RE

Major Geographic Province Boundary

ALLEGHENY PLATEAU

ERIE–ONTARIO LOWLANDS (PLAINS)

LAKE ONTARIO

INTERIOR LOWLANDS

N AP PA L AC HI A

LA OW

HU N LO EW A W LA RK ND S

ND S

L AT

K LO

– MO H A W DS ON

DS AN

EW N

O PR S) D ND N A LA L G GH EN (HI

E C N I V

A CO IC T AN

IN L PLA STA

N

DS LAN HIGH N O S G HUD R ON AN P T T A H MAN

CHAMPLAIN LOWL W LA TACON IC MO UNTAIN S

Generalized Landscape Regions of New York State

Introduction

7

modified from GEOLOGICAL SURVEY NEW YORK STATE MUSEUM 1989

} }

limestones, shales, sandstones, and dolostones

}

}

Dominantly Sedimentary Origin

}

CAMBRIAN and EARLY ORDOVICIAN sandstones and dolostones Moderately to intensely metamorphosed east of the Hudson River. Dominantly CAMBRIAN and ORDOVICIAN (undifferentiated) quartzites, dolostones, marbles, and schists Metamorphosed Intensely metamorphosed; includes portions of the Taconic Sequence and Cortlandt Complex. Rocks TACONIC SEQUENCE sandstones, shales, and slates Slightly to intensely metamorphosed rocks of CAMBRIAN throughMIDDLE ORDOVICIAN ages. MIDDLE PROTEROZOIC gneisses, quartzites, and marbles Lines are generalized structure trends. Intensely Metamorphosed Rocks (regional metamorphism about 1,000 m.y.a.) MIDDLE PROTEROZOIC anorthositic rocks

ORDOVICIAN CAMBRIAN

CRETACEOUS, TERTIARY, PLEISTOCENE (Epoch) weakly consolidated to unconsolidated gravels, sands, and clays LATE TRIASSIC and EARLY JURASSIC conglomerates, red sandstones, red shales, and diabase (in Palisades Sill) PENNSYLVANIAN and MISSISSIPPIAN conglomerates, sandstones, and shales DEVONIAN limestones, shales, sandstones, and conglomerates Silurian also contains salt, gypsum, and hematite. SILURIAN

GEOLOGICAL PERIODS AND ERAS IN NEW YORK

Ni

8 ara River ag

Generalized Bedrock Geology of New York State

NG LO

O U ND AND S ISL

N

CliffsTestPrep Regents Earth Science: The Physical Setting Workbook

Surface Ocean Currents

Introduction

9

KEY:

10 Fiji Plate

Mid-Ocean Ridge

Divergent Plate Boundary (usually broken by transform faults along mid-ocean ridges)

Philippine Plate

Convergent Plate Boundary (Subduction Zone)

subducting plate

overriding plate

Transform Plate Boundary (Transform Fault)

Sandwich Plate

Tectonic Plates

Relative Motion at Plate Boundary

Mantle Hot Spot

NOTE: Not all plates and boundaries are shown.

Complex or Uncertain Plate Boundary

CliffsTestPrep Regents Earth Science: The Physical Setting Workbook

Introduction Rock Cycle in Earth’s Crust

Relationship of Transported Particle Size to Water Velocity

SEDIMENTS

n

/or Pressure t a nd Hea tamorphism Me

re

ion lift) os (Up & Er g in r the Wea lting Me

Me ltin g

li d

PEBBLES 0.2 cm

0.1 SAND

0.01

0.006 cm

0.001

SILT 0.0004 cm

0.0001

0.00001

IGNEOUS ROCK

So

1.0

CLAY

0

100 200 300 400 500 600 700 800

STREAM VELOCITY (cm/sec) *This generalized graph shows the water velocity needed to maintain, but not start, movement. Variations occur due to differences in particle density and shape.

if

ic

METAMORPHIC ROCK

BOULDERS 25.6 cm COBBLES 6.4 cm

10.0

MAGMA

Pumice

Vesicular Basaltic Glass Vesicular Basalt

Vesicular Rhyolite

Vesicular Andesite

Rhyolite

Andesite

Basalt

Granite

Diorite

Gabbro

Scoria

Peridotite

Pegmatite

LIGHT

COLOR

LOW

DENSITY

GRAIN SIZE

Noncrystalline

Basaltic Glass

Dunite

INTRUSIVE (Plutonic)

EXTRUSIVE (Volcanic)

Obsidian (usually appears black)

TEXTURE

Glassy

Nonvesicular Vesicular (gas pockets)

Fine

Coarse

Nonvesicular

Very Coarse

DARK HIGH

COMPOSITION

FELSIC (Al)

MINERAL COMPOSITION (Relative by Volume)

CHARACTERISTICS

IGNEOUS ROCKS

ENVIRONMENT OF FORMATION

Scheme for Igneous Rock Identification

10 mm 1 mm less than or to 1 mm larger 10 mm

Melting

Heat and/or Pressu

(Up We lift) athe ring & Er osio

Erosion

SEDIMENTARY ROCK Metamorphism

PARTICLE DIAMETER (cm)

100.0

(Uplift) Weathering & Erosion

e

De po sit ion

Compaction

on at i nt

at ion

Ce m

Burial

MAFIC (Fe, Mg)

100%

100% Potassium feldspar (pink to white)

75%

Quartz (clear to white)

75% Plagioclase feldspar (white to gray)

50%

50%

Pyroxene (green) Biotite (black)

25% Amphibole (black)

0%

Olivine (green)

25%

0%

11

CliffsTestPrep Regents Earth Science: The Physical Setting Workbook Scheme for Sedimentary Rock Identification INORGANIC LAND-DERIVED SEDIMENTARY ROCKS TEXTURE

GRAIN SIZE

COMPOSITION

Pebbles, cobbles, and/or boulders embedded in sand, silt, and/or clay Clastic (fragmental)

Sand (0.2 to 0.006 cm) Silt (0.006 to 0.0004 cm) Clay (less than 0.0004 cm)

Mostly quartz, feldspar, and clay minerals; may contain fragments of other rocks and minerals

COMMENTS

ROCK NAME

Rounded fragments

Conglomerate

MAP SYMBOL

Breccia

Angular fragments Fine to coarse

Sandstone

Very fine grain

Siltstone

Compact; may split easily

. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

Shale

CHEMICALLY AND/OR ORGANICALLY FORMED SEDIMENTARY ROCKS TEXTURE

GRAIN SIZE

COMPOSITION

Varied

Halite

Varied

Gypsum

Varied

Dolomite

Crystalline

COMMENTS

MAP SYMBOL

Rock Salt

Crystals from chemical precipitates and evaporites

Rock Gypsum Dolostone

Microscopic to coarse

Calcite

Cemented shell fragments or precipitates of biologic origin

Varied

Carbon

From plant remains

Bioclastic

ROCK NAME

Limestone Coal

Scheme for Metamorphic Rock Identification

NONFOLIATED

TYPE OF METAMORPHISM

Regional

Fine to medium

(Heat and pressure increase with depth)

Medium to coarse

AMPHIBOLE GARNET PYROXENE

Fine

Fine

Variable

Contact (Heat)

Quartz Fine to coarse

COMMENTS

Low-grade metamorphism of shale Foliation surfaces shiny from microscopic mica crystals

ROCK NAME

Slate

Phyllite

Platy mica crystals visible from metamorphism of clay or feldspars

Schist

High-grade metamorphism; some mica changed to feldspar; segregated by mineral type into bands

Gneiss

Various rocks changed by heat from nearby magma/lava

Hornfels

Metamorphism of quartz sandstone

Quartzite

Metamorphism of limestone or dolostone

Marble

Regional Calcite and/or dolomite

or Contact

Coarse

12

COMPOSITION

MICA QUARTZ FELDSPAR

MINERAL ALIGNMENT BANDING

FOLIATED

TEXTURE

GRAIN SIZE

Various minerals in particles and matrix

Pebbles may be distorted or stretched

Metaconglomerate

MAP SYMBOL

Introduction Inferred Properties of Earth’s Interior

LAN AT

T IC

OCE

AN

DENSITY (g/cm3) IC TLANT MID-AIDGE R RE

H IT

C

3.3–5.5

LE NT MA

?) ON (IR

9.9–12.1

E

N

RE CO KEL IC

12.7–13.0

I RO

IN N

ER

O UT ER

CO R

STI FF ER

E

I ST LA (P

&

SP HE R

T

TH AS

US

C A T R CS E A N D C SE H CR

PACIFIC OCEAN

PRESSURE (millions of atmospheres)

M RIG AN ID TL EN E O

NO RT H

L

LE) NT MA

N

AM ER I

CA

E PH OS

2.7 continental crust 3.0 oceanic crust MOHO

4

EARTH’S CENTER

3 2 1 0

?

6000

?

?

? ?

T POIN

5000

MEL TING

TEMPERATURE (°C)

MANTLE

4000

A

? ? ? ?

E LT UA CT

ER MP

U AT

RE

T

IN

NG

PO

TI EL

M

3000 2000 PARTIAL MELTING OF ULTRAMAFIC MANTLE

1000 0 0

1000 2000 3000 4000 5000 6000 DEPTH (km)

13

CliffsTestPrep Regents Earth Science: The Physical Setting Workbook

GEOLOGIC HISTORY

(Fossils not drawn to scale) C

D

F

E

G

H

J

I

K

Valcouroceras Tetragraptus Eucalyptocrinus Centroceras Cryptolithus Ctenocrinus Dicellograptus Manticoceras Phacops Elliptocephala Hexameroceras

Eon

Era

Period

Epoch

Life on Earth

Millions of years ago

L A T E

4000

PALEOGENE

MESOZOIC

142 LATE

JURASSIC

Earliest birds Abundant dinosaurs and ammonoids

MIDDLE

M I D D L E

E A R L Y

TRIASSIC

PALEOZOIC Transition to atmosphere containing oxygen

206 LATE MIDDLE EARLY 251 LATE

PERMIAN EARLY

Extinction of many kinds of marine animals, including trilobites First mammal-like reptiles

290 LATE

Earliest reptiles Extensive coal-forming forests

PENNSYLVANIAN

EARLY MISSISSIPPIAN

DEVONIAN

323

LATE EARLY LATE

Oldest microfossils

Modern coral groups appear Earliest dinosaurs and mammals with abundant cycads and conifers

Abundant sharks and amphibians Large and numerous scale trees and seed ferns

362 Earliest amphibians, ammonoids, sharks Extinction of armored fish, other fish abundant

MIDDLE EARLY

Geochemical evidence for oldest biological fixing of carbon

AMMONOIDS

E A R L Y

418 LATE

SILURIAN EARLY

C

Earliest insects Earliest land plants and animals Peak development of eurypterids

F

E

443

Oldest known rocks LATE

ORDOVICIAN

Invertebrates dominant – mollusks become abundant Diverse coral and echinoderms

MIDDLE

B

Graptolites abundant 490

Estimated time of origin of Earth and solar system

LATE MIDDLE

CAMBRIAN

Earliest fish Algal reefs Burgess shale fauna Earliest chordates, diverse trilobites Earliest trilobites Earliest marine animals with shells

EARLY 544 580

Ediacaran fauna

Soft-bodied organisms

1300

14

Rock Record in NYS

Climax of dinosaurs and ammonoids Earliest flowering plants Decline of brachiopods Diverse bony fishes

EARLY

EARLY 4600

Eurypterus

HOLOCENE 0 0.01 PLEISTOCENE 1.6 Humans, mastodonts, mammoths PLIOCENE 5.3 Large carnivores Abundant grazing mammals MIOCENE 24 Earliest grasses OLIGOCENE Large running mammals EOCENE 33.7 Many modern groups of mammals 54.8 PALEOCENE 65 Extinction of dinosaurs and ammonoids Earliest placental mammals LATE

CRETACEOUS

First appearance of sexually reproducing organisms

Coelophysis

TRILOBITES

PROTEROZOIC

P R E C A M B R I A N

NEOGENE

M

EARLY

L A T E

ARCHEAN

3000

M I D D L E

Oldest multicellular life

TERTIARY

CENOZOIC

1000

2000

QUATERNARY

CARBONIFEROUS

500

PHANEROZOIC

Millions of years ago 0

L

NAUTILOIDS

B

A

Stromatolites

A

D

G

Introduction

OF NEW YORK STATE N

P

O

Stylonurus Mastodont

T

U

V

W

X

Y

Time Distribution of Fossils

Tectonic Events Affecting Northeast North America

S

Important Geologic Events in New York

Inferred Position of Earth’s Landmasses

TERTIARY

59 million years ago

CRETACEOUS

119 million years ago

TRIASSIC

232 million years ago

BIRDS

Advance and retreat of last continental ice Uplift of Adirondack region

Sands and shales underlying Long Island and Staten Island deposited on margin of Atlantic Ocean

MAMMALS

DINOSAURS

Z

Bothriolepis Naples Tree Pleurodictyum Mucrospirifer Lichenaria Platyceras Cooksonia Aneurophyton Condor Eospirifer Maclurites Cystiphyllum

Beluga Whale

(Including Important Fossils of New York) Lettered circles indicate the approximate time of existence of a specific index fossil (e.g. Fossil A lived at the end of the Early Cambrian).

O

S

R

Q

Passive Margin

Development of passive continental margin

BRACHIOPODS

CORALS

GASTROPODS

VASCULAR PLANTS

CRINOIDS

Initial opening of Atlantic Ocean North America and Africa separate Intrusion of Palisades sill Pangea begins to break up

Rifting

L

X

Z

Extensive erosion

Appalachian (Alleghanian) Orogeny caused by collision of North America and Africa along transform margin, forming Pangea

P

Earth’s first coral reef

V Y

U

T

Transform Collision

K

M

Catskill Delta forms Erosion of Acadian Mountains

R

W

Rifting

Subduction

J

Passive Margin

GRAPTOLITES

H

Q

Continental Collision

I

N

PLACODERM FISH

EURYPTERIDS

Earth’s first forest

Acadian Orogeny caused by collision of North America and Avalon and closing of remaining part of Iapetus Ocean

DEVONIAN/MISSISSIPPIAN 362 million years ago

Salt and gypsum deposited in evaporite basins

Erosion of Taconic Mountains; Queenston Delta forms Taconian Orogeny caused by closing of western part of Iapetus Ocean and collision between North America and volcanic island arc

ORDOVICIAN

458 million years ago

Iapetus passive margin forms Rifting and initial opening of Iapetus Ocean Erosion of Grenville Mountains Grenville Orogeny: Ancestral Adirondack Mtns. and Hudson Highlands formed

99-098 CDK(rev) 8/2000

15

CliffsTestPrep Regents Earth Science: The Physical Setting Workbook Average Chemical Composition of Earth’s Crust, Hydrosphere, and Troposphere CRUST

ELEMENT (symbol)

Oxygen (O) Silicon (Si) Aluminum (Al) Iron (Fe) Calcium (Ca) Sodium (Na) Magnesium (Mg) Potassium (K) Nitrogen (N) Hydrogen (H) Other

Percent by Mass

Percent by Volume

46.40 28.15 8.23 5.63 4.15 2.36 2.33 2.09

94.04 0.88 0.48 0.49 1.18 1.11 0.33 1.42

HYDROSPHERE TROPOSPHERE Percent by Percent by Volume Volume

21.0

33.0

78.0 0.66

0.07

66.0 1.0

1.0

Earthquake P-wave and S-wave Travel Time 24 23 22 21 20 19 18

S

17

TRAVEL TIME (minutes)

16 15 14 13 12 11 10

P

9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1 1

16

2

3 4 5 6 7 3 EPICENTER DISTANCE (×10 km)

8

9

10

Introduction Dewpoint Temperatures (°C) Dry-Bulb Temperature (°C) – 20 –18 –16 –14 –12 –10 –8 –6 –4 –2 0 2 4 6 8 10 12 14 16 18 20 22 24 26 28 30

Difference Between Wet-Bulb and Dry-Bulb Temperatures (C°) 0 – 20 –18 –16 –14 –12 –10 –8 –6 –4 –2 0 2 4 6 8 10 12 14 16 18 20 22 24 26 28 30

1 – 33 – 28 – 24 – 21 –18 –14 –12 –10 –7 –5 –3 –1 1 4 6 8 10 12 14 16 19 21 23 25 27 29

2

– 36 – 28 – 22 –18 –14 –12 –8 –6 –3 –1 1 3 6 8 11 13 15 17 19 21 23 25 27

3

4

5

6

7

8

9

10

11

12

13

14

15

– 29 – 22 –17 – 29 –13 – 20 – 9 –15 – 24 – 6 –11 –17 – 4 – 7 –11 –19 –1 – 4 – 7 –13 – 21 1 – 2 – 5 – 9 –14 4 1 – 2 – 5 – 9 –14 – 28 6 4 1 – 2 – 5 – 9 –16 9 6 4 1 – 2 – 5 –10 –17 11 9 7 4 1 –1 – 6 –10 –17 13 11 9 7 4 2 – 2 – 5 –10 –19 15 14 12 10 7 4 2 –2 – 5 –10 –19 17 16 14 12 10 8 5 3 –1 – 5 –10 –19 20 18 16 14 12 10 8 6 2 –1 – 5 –10 –18 22 20 18 17 15 13 11 9 6 3 0 –4 –9 24 22 21 19 17 16 14 11 9 7 4 1 –3 26 24 23 21 19 18 16 14 12 10 8 5 1

Relative Humidity (%) Dry-Bulb Temperature (°C) – 20 –18 –16 –14 –12 –10 –8 –6 –4 –2 0 2 4 6 8 10 12 14 16 18 20 22 24 26 28 30

Difference Between Wet-Bulb and Dry-Bulb Temperatures (C°) 0 100 100 100 100 100 100 100 100 100 100 100 100 100 100 100 100 100 100 100 100 100 100 100 100 100 100

1 28 40 48 55 61 66 71 73 77 79 81 83 85 86 87 88 88 89 90 91 91 92 92 92 93 93

2

3

4

5

6

7

8

9

10

11

12

13

14

15

11 23 33 41 48 54 58 63 67 70 72 74 76 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 86

13 20 32 37 45 51 56 59 62 65 67 69 71 72 74 75 76 77 78 79

11 20 28 36 42 46 51 54 57 60 62 64 66 68 69 70 71 72

1 11 20 27 35 39 43 48 50 54 56 58 60 62 64 65 66

6 14 22 28 33 38 41 45 48 51 53 55 57 59 61

10 17 24 28 33 37 40 44 46 49 51 53 55

6 13 19 25 29 33 36 40 42 45 47 49

4 10 16 21 26 30 33 36 39 42 44

2 8 14 19 23 27 30 34 36 39

1 7 12 17 21 25 28 31 34

1 6 11 15 20 23 26 29

5 10 14 18 21 25

4 9 13 17 20

4 9 12 16

17

CliffsTestPrep Regents Earth Science: The Physical Setting Workbook Pressure

Temperature Fahrenheit

Celsius

Kelvin

110 Water boils

220

70

Human body temperature Room temperature

30

80

20

0

–20

–20

–30

–40

–40

–60

–50

30.20

1020.0

30.10

310

1016.0

30.00

300

one atmosphere 1012.0 1013.2 mb

29.90 29.80

1008.0 29.70 1004.0

270

–10

0

30.50

30.30 1024.0

280

40 20

1028.0

290

60 10

Ice melts

350

320

40

100

1032.0

330

50

120

30.60

360

340

60

140

1036.0

30.40

80

160

30.70

370

90

180

inches

1040.0

380

100

200

millibars

29.60

260

1000.0

250

996.0

29.40

992.0

29.30

240 230 988.0

220

29.50

29.20 29.10

984.0

Weather Map Symbols Station Model Temperature (°F) Present weather Visibility (mi) Dewpoint (°F)

28 1 2✱

27

Wind speed whole feather = 10 knots half feather = 5 knots total = 15 knots

Present Weather

Drizzle

Rain

Smog

Hail

Snow

✱

18

Sleet

Freezing Rain

Fog

Haze

Amount of cloud cover (approximately 75% covered) Barometric pressure 196 (1019.6 mb) Barometric trend +19/ (a steady 1.9-mb rise the past 3 hours) .25 Precipitation (inches past 6 hours)

Snow Showers

28.90

976.0

28.80

972.0

28.70

968.0

28.60 28.50

Wind direction (from the southwest) (1 knot = 1.15 mi/hr)

Air Masses

ThunderRain storms Showers

✱

29.00 980.0

Front Symbols

cA continental arctic

Cold

cP continental polar

Warm

cT continental tropical mT maritime tropical mP maritime polar

Stationary Occluded

Hurricane

Introduction Selected Properties of Earth’s Atmosphere

mi

km 150

Atmospheric Pressure

Temperature Zones

Water Vapor

75 100

Thermosphere Mesopause

50 Altitude

Mesosphere Stratopause

50 25

Stratosphere Tropopause Troposphere 100°

10–4 10–3 10–2 10–1 10 0

0° –100° 15° –90° –55° Temperature (°C)

0

20

40

Concentration (g/m3)

Pressure (atm)

0.000,000,1

0.000,001

0.000,01

0.000,1

0.001

0.01

0.1

1.0

10

100

1,000

Electromagnetic Spectrum

0.000,000,01

cm 10–10

0

0.000,000,001

10–9

10–8

10–7

10–6

10–5

10–4

10–3

10–2

10–1

100

101

102

103

Gamma rays

x rays Visible

Microwaves Ultraviolet

Infrared Radio waves

Decreasing Wavelength

Increasing Wavelength Visible Light Red

7.0 × 10–5

Orange

6.3 × 10–5

Yellow

5.8 × 10–5

Green

5.3 × 10–5

Blue

4.9 × 10–5

4.3 × 10–5

Violet

4.0 × 10–5

cm

0.000,000,000,1

Sea Level 0

Tropopause Polar Front Jet Stream DRY

Polar Front

N.E.

WET

60° N

S.W. WINDS DRY

30° N

N.E. WINDS

0°

WET

Subtropical Jet Streams

S.E. WINDS DRY N.W. WINDS WET

30° S

Planetary Wind and Moisture Belts in the Troposphere The drawing to the left shows the locations of the belts near the time of an equinox. The locations shift somewhat with the changing latitude of the Sun’s vertical ray. In the Northern Hemisphere, the belts shift northward in summer and southward in winter.

60° S

S.E.

DRY

Polar Front Jet Stream

19

CliffsTestPrep Regents Earth Science: The Physical Setting Workbook Luminosity and Temperature of Stars (Name in italics refers to star shown by a + )

Luminosity (Relative to the Sun)

1,000,000 Massive Stars

Blue Supergiants

Rigel

Betelgeuse

+

10,000

Luminosity is the brightness of stars compared to the brightness of our Sun as seen from the same distance from the observer.

Supergiants +

Polaris +

Ma

in S

Red Giants + Aldebaran

equ

100

enc

e

+ Sirius

1

Sun

+ +

Alpha Centauri

White Dwarfs + Procyon B

0.01

Red Dwarfs Barnard’s Star +

Small Stars 0.0001

20,000

White Stars Color

Blue Stars

5,000

10,000 Temperature (°C)

Yellow Stars

2,500 Red Stars

Solar System Data Object

Period of Revolution

Period of Rotation

Eccentricity Equatorial of Diameter Orbit (km)

1,392,000

Mass (Earth = 1)

333,000.00

Density Number 3 of (g/cm ) Moons

SUN

—

—

27 days

—

1.4

–

MERCURY

57.9

88 days

59 days

0.206

4,880

0.553

5.4

0

VENUS

108.2

224.7 days

243 days

0.007

12,104

0.815

5.2

0

EARTH

149.6

365.26 days

23 hr 56 min 4 sec

0.017

12,756

1.00

5.5

1

MARS

227.9

687 days

24 hr 37 min 23 sec

0.093

6,787

0.1074

3.9

2

JUPITER

778.3

11.86 years

9 hr 50 min 30 sec

0.048

142,800

317.896

1.3

16

10 14 17 14 16

0.056

120,000

95.185

0.7

18

0.047

51,800

14.537

1.2

21

17.151

SATURN

1,427

29.46 years

URANUS

2,869

84.0 years

NEPTUNE

4,496

164.8 years

PLUTO

5,900

247.7 years

EARTH’S MOON

20

Mean Distance from Sun (millions of km)

149.6 (0.386 from Earth)

27.3 days

hr min hr min hr

0.009

49,500

1.7

8

6 days 9 hr

0.250

2,300

0.0025

2.0

1

27 days 8 hr

0.055

3,476

0.0123

3.3

—

Either

Metallic Luster

HARDNESS

Properties of Common Minerals COMMON COLORS

DISTINGUISHING CHARACTERISTICS

USE(S)

MINERAL NAME

black streak, greasy feel

pencil lead, lubricants

Graphite

C

COMPOSITION*

1–2

✔

silver to gray

2.5

✔

metallic silver

very dense (7.6 g/cm3), gray-black streak

ore of lead

Galena

PbS

5.5–6.5

✔

black to silver

attracted by magnet, black streak

ore of iron

Magnetite

Fe3O4

6.5

✔

brassy yellow

green-black streak, cubic crystals

ore of sulfur

Pyrite

FeS2

1–6.5

✔

metallic silver or earthy red

red-brown streak

ore of iron

Hematite

Fe2O3

white to green

greasy feel

talcum powder, soapstone

Talc

Mg3Si4O10(OH)2

yellow to amber

easily melted, may smell

vulcanize rubber, sulfuric acid

Sulfur

S

1

✔ ✔

2

Nonmetallic Luster

FRACTURE

LUSTER

CLEAVAGE

Introduction

2

✔

white to pink or gray

easily scratched by fingernail

plaster of paris and drywall

Gypsum (Selenite)

CaSO4 •2H2O

2–2.5

✔

colorless to yellow

flexible in thin sheets

electrical insulator

Muscovite Mica

KAl3Si3O10(OH)2

2.5

✔

colorless to white

cubic cleavage, salty taste

food additive, melts ice

Halite

NaCl

2.5–3

✔

black to dark brown

flexible in thin sheets

electrical insulator

Biotite Mica

K(Mg,Fe)3 AlSi3O10(OH)2

3

✔

colorless or variable

bubbles with acid

cement, polarizing prisms

Calcite

CaCO3

3.5

✔

colorless or variable

bubbles with acid when powdered

source of magnesium

Dolomite

CaMg(CO3)2

4

✔

colorless or variable

cleaves in 4 directions

hydrofluoric acid

Fluorite

CaF2

5–6

✔

black to dark green

cleaves in 2 directions at 90°

mineral collections

Pyroxene (commonly Augite)

(Ca,Na) (Mg,Fe,Al) (Si,Al)2O6

5.5

✔

black to dark green

cleaves at 56° and 124°

mineral collections

6

✔

white to pink

cleaves in 2 directions at 90°

ceramics and glass

Potassium Feldspar (Orthoclase)

KAlSi3O8

6

✔

white to gray

cleaves in 2 directions, striations visible

ceramics and glass

Plagioclase Feldspar (Na-Ca Feldspar)

(Na,Ca)AlSi3O8

furnace bricks and jewelry

Olivine

(Fe,Mg)2SiO4

Quartz

SiO2

Garnet (commonly Almandine)

Fe3Al2Si3O12

6.5

✔

green to gray or brown

commonly light green and granular

7

✔

colorless or variable

glassy luster, may form hexagonal crystals

7

✔

dark red to green

glassy luster, often seen as red grains in NYS metamorphic rocks

*Chemical Symbols:

Al = aluminum C = carbon Ca = calcium

Cl = chlorine F = fluorine Fe = iron

H = hydrogen K = potassium Mg = magnesium

CaNa(Mg,Fe)4 (Al,Fe,Ti)3 Amphiboles (commonly Hornblende) Si6O22(O,OH)2

glass, jewelry, and electronics jewelry and abrasives

Na = sodium O = oxygen Pb = lead

S = sulfur Si = silicon Ti = titanium

✔ = dominant form of breakage

21

Observation and Measurement Multiple-Choice Questions For each statement or question, choose the number of the word or expression that, of those given, best completes the statement or answers the question. Base your answers to question 1 on the bedrock cross section. The cross section represents part of Earth’s crust where natural gas, oil, and water have moved upward through a layer of folded sandstone and filled the pore spaces at the top of the sandstone layer. Top Limestone Shale Natural gas

Oil Water Shale

Bottom

1. The final arrangement of the natural gas, oil, and water within the sandstone was caused by differences in their (1) (2) (3) (4)

density. specific heat. relative age. radioactive half-life.

Correct Answer: (1) Layers of liquids and gas will arrange themselves according to their density; with the most dense materials below the least dense. It can be inferred that water is more dense than oil, which is more dense that natural gas. (Density)

23

CliffsTestPrep Regents Earth Science: The Physical Setting Workbook

Days with Thunderstorms During Year

2. The graph shows the average number of days each year that thunderstorms occur at different latitudes on Earth. 70 60 50 40 30 20 10 0 70 60 50 40 30 20 10 0 10 20 30 40 50 60 North South Latitude (°)

According to the graph, what is the approximate number of days each year that thunderstorms occur at locations along the 40° N parallel of latitude? (1) (2) (3) (4)

8 days 18 days 24 days 32 days

Correct Answer: (2) Starting along the x-axis, find 40 degrees latitude North and trace up to the curve representing thunderstorm occurrence. Trace over to the y-axis to find the number of thunderstorms occurring at this latitude (estimated at 18 days/year). (Graphs) Base your answer to question 3 on the two tables here and on your knowledge of Earth science. The first table shows the composition, hardness, and average density of four minerals often used as gemstones. The second table lists the minerals in Moh’s Scale of Hardness from 1 (softest) to 10 (hardest). Gemstone Mineral

Composition

Hardness

Average Density (g/cm3)

emerald

Be3Al2(Si6O18)

7.5–8

2.7

sapphire

Al2O3

9

4.0

spinel

MgAl2O4

8

3.8

zircon

ZrSiO4

7.5

4.7

Key Al = aluminum; Be = beryllium; Mg = magnesium; O = oxygen; Si = silicon; Zr = zirconium

24

Observation and Measurement

Moh’s Scale of Hardness 1 talc 2 gypsum 3 calcite 4 fluorite 5 apatite 6 feldspar 7 quartz 8 topaz 9 corundum 10 diamond

3. If the mass of a spinel crystal is 9.5 grams, what is the volume of this spinel crystal? (1) (2) (3) (4)

0.4 cm3 2.5 cm3 5.7 cm3 36.1 cm3

Correct Answer: (2) The density formula (D=M/V) can be manipulated to solve for V. The new formula will be V = M/D. To solve for V, divide the mass by the density. 9.5/3.8= 2.5g/cm3. (Density) 4. A student determines the density of a mineral to be 1.5 grams per cubic centimeter. If the accepted value is 2.0 grams per cubic centimeter, what is the student’s percent deviation (percent error)? (1) (2) (3) (4)

25.0% 33.3% 40.0% 50.0%

Correct Answer: (1) According to the Earth Science Reference Tables (Equations), substitution of the aforementioned values into the equation for percent deviation yields: 2.0g – 1.5g / 2.0g = .25 or 25%. (% Deviation)

25

CliffsTestPrep Regents Earth Science: The Physical Setting Workbook

5. Each dot on the graph shows the result of separate scientific studies of the relationship between the rates of erosion in regions of different relief. Relief is the local difference between the highest and the lowest elevations. 80

Average Rate of Erosion (cm/1,000 yr)

70 60 50 40 30 20 10 0 100

200

300

400

500

600

700

Relief (m)

The results of these combined studies indicate that with each 100-meter increase in relief, the rate of erosion generally (1) (2) (3) (4)

decreases at a rate of 10 cm/1,000 years. decreases at a rate of 20 cm/1,000 years. increases at a rate of 10 cm/1,000 years. increases at a rate of 20 cm/1,000 years.

Correct Answer: (3) As relief (x-axis) increases, the rate of erosion (y-axis) also increases. That limits your correct choices to 3 and 4. To determine the rate of increase, notice that for every 100 m of relief, the rate of erosion increases by 10 cm for every 1,000 years. For example, when relief is 100 m, the rate of erosion is 10 cm/1,000 years. When relief is 200 m, the rate of erosion is 20 cm/1,000 years. This is an increase of 10 cm/1,000 years. (Graphs)

26

Observation and Measurement Base your answer to question 6 on the graph, which shows the crustal temperature and pressure conditions under which three different minerals with the same chemical composition (Al2SiO5) crystallize. Conditions Under Which Three Different Minerals Composed of Al2SiO5 Form

Pressure (thousands of atmospheres)

9 8 7

Kyanite forms 6 5

Sillimanite forms

4 3 2

Andalusite forms

1 0

300

500 700 Temperature (°C)

900

6. Under which crustal temperature and pressure conditions will andalusite form? (1) (2) (3) (4)

300°C and 6,000 atmospheres 500°C and 2,000 atmospheres 600°C and 4,000 atmospheres 700°C and 8,000 atmospheres

Correct Answer: (2) The image shows the various conditions in which andalusite will form. By extrapolating on the graph all 4 choices, you will find that 500º C and 2,000 atmospheres are well within adalusite range. (Graphs)

27

CliffsTestPrep Regents Earth Science: The Physical Setting Workbook

Open-Ended Questions Base your answer to question 7 on the field map provided here. The map shows elevations, measured in feet, of a number of points in a certain geographic region. Contour lines have been drawn for the 100-foot and 120-foot elevations. Points A and B represent two spot elevations on the map.

96

51 34

40 38

25

37

20

18 11

10

28

86 85 75

0

100

91

77

44 60 42 36 25 27 20 18

10

12 0

1

2

80

38

23

7

Steeler Bay

97

59 40

B

17

78

49

17

0

20

60

38

e ek

60

58

23

52

90

95 80

40

78

65

68

64

77

84

83

43

80

60

A

Elm a Cr

0 10 92

71

3 miles

N

7. Calculate the gradient between points A and B. Label the answer with the correct units. Correct Answer: Using the first page of the Earth Science Reference Tables, locate the formula for Gradient. The change in field value is the difference in elevation between points A (60 ft) and B (10 ft). That difference is 50 feet. The distance between these points is measured according to the scale at the bottom to be 2.5 miles. Subbing into the formula, the gradient is 20 feet/mile. (Rate of Change)

28

Observation and Measurement Base your answers to questions 8 and 9 on the passage that follows and on your knowledge of Earth science. The passage describes a tornado produced from a thunderstorm that moved through a portion of New York State on May 31, 1998.

New York Tornado A small tornado formed and moved through the town of Apalachin, New York, at 5:30 P.M., producing winds between 40 and 72 miles per hour. The tops of trees were snapped off, and many large limbs fell to the ground. The path of the destruction measured up to 200 feet wide. At 5:45 P.M., the tornado next moved through the town of Vestal where winds ranged between 73 and 112 miles per hour. Many people experienced personal property damage as many homes were hit with flying material. At 6:10 P.M., the tornado moved close to Binghamton, producing winds between 113 and 157 miles per hour. A 1000-foot television tower was pushed over, and many heavy objects were tossed about by the strong winds. Then the tornado lifted off the ground for short periods of time and bounced along toward the town of Windsor. At 6:15 P.M., light damage was done to trees as limbs fell and small shallow-rooted trees were pushed over in Windsor. The tornado increased in strength again at 6:20 P.M. as it moved into Sanford. Some homes were damaged as their roof shingles and siding were ripped off. One mobile home was turned over on its side. The tornado moved through the town of Deposit at 6:30 P.M., creating a path of destruction 200 yards wide. The tornado skipped along hilltops, touching down occasionally on the valley floors. However, much damage was done to homes as the tornado’s winds reached their maximum speeds of 158 to 206 miles per hour. The tornado weakened and sporadically touched down after leaving Deposit. By 7:00 P.M., the tornado had finally ended its 1-hour rampage. Newark Valley

Fairfield

Middle Bridge

Chenango Forks

Tacoma

Nineveh Junction

West Chenango

North Sanford Gaskill

Owego

Endwell

Vestal Apalachin

Lounsberry

Johnson City

Windham Russellville

Ouaquaga Occanum

Fivemile Binghamton Point Lester Kirkwood

New York Pennsylvania

Friendsville

Stanfordville

Barbourville

East Windsor Windsor

Edson

Hickory Grove

Beerston

Rock Rift

Sanford

Kerry Siding

Winterdale

Shinhopple

Elk Brook

Hancock

Goulds

Fairmont

Brushville

Downsville

Deposit

Gulf Summit

Riverside Laurel Lake

Hamden

Cleave

Newmans Corner

Catatonk

N 0

5

10

15

20

25 mi

8. On the map shown here, draw the path of the tornado and the direction the tornado moved, by following the directions. ■

Place an X through the point for each of the six towns mentioned in the passage.

■

Connect the Xs with a line in the order that each town was mentioned in the passage.

■

Place an arrow at one end of your line to show the direction of the tornado’s movement.

29

CliffsTestPrep Regents Earth Science: The Physical Setting Workbook Correct Answer: Newark Valley

Fairfield

Middle Bridge

Chenango Forks

Tacoma

Nineveh Junction

West Chenango

North Sanford Gaskill

Owego

Endwell

Vestal Apalachin

Lounsberry

Johnson City

Windham Russellville

Ouaquaga Occanum

Fivemile Binghamton Point Lester Kirkwood

New York Pennsylvania

Friendsville

Stanfordville

Barbourville

East Windsor Windsor

Edson

Hickory Grove

Beerston

Rock Rift

Sanford

Kerry Siding

Winterdale

Shinhopple

Elk Brook

Hancock

Goulds

Fairmont

Brushville

Downsville

Deposit

Gulf Summit

Riverside Laurel Lake

Hamden

Cleave

Newmans Corner

Catatonk

N 0

5

10

15

20

25 mi

Each X should be placed on each of the six towns and the line should point eastward so that it connects all six towns in the order described in the article. (Hurricanes and Tornadoes) 9. Calculate the tornado’s average rate of travel, in miles per minute, between Vestal and Windsor, by using the equation that follows. Express your answer to the nearest tenth. Tornado’s rate of travel = distance between Vestal and Windsor (miles)/ Time (minutes) Correct Answer: 0.7 mi/m By using the map provided with question 5, you can determine that the distance between Vestal and Windsor is 21 miles. According to the paragraph, the tornado hit Vestal at 5:45 P.M. and Windsor at 6:15 P.M., which makes for a difference of 30 minutes. Using the formula: 21 miles/30 minutes = 0.7 mi/m. (Rate of Change)

30

Observation and Measurement Base your answers to question 10 on the topographic map. The map shows a portion of the Taterskill Creek flowing past the towns of Lawson and Glenton. The shaded area is Taterskill Creek. The arrows in the creek show its direction of flow. Points A, B, and C are locations on the map. Points A and B are connected with a reference line. Mercado Dam is located 32 miles upstream from Lawson. In the remote possibility of a failure of the Mercado Dam, the Taterskill Creek is expected to rise to the 600-foot contour line in the vicinity of the two towns.

C B

700

650

213

d

rsk i

600

ll C ree k

id ills

e

ad Ro

16 9

A

4

Main Stree t

Ta te

e

rR oa

213

0

H

R iv

60

65

0

4

0

Mountain Ro a d

75

101

Lawson 600

65 0 600

70 0

16

65 0 75 0

9

Glenton Key 0

0.5 mile Contour interval = 10 feet

1.0

N

Building

Road route number

Road

Bridge

Primary highway

Predicted flood area

10. If Mercado Dam ruptured, the first floodwater would take exactly 4 hours to reach the town of Lawson. In the space provided in your answer booklet, calculate the average rate of travel for the leading edge of the floodwater. Label your answer with the correct units. Correct Answer: Mercado Dam lies 32 miles upstream from Lawson. In the event of the dam rupturing, it would take 4 hours for floodwaters to reach Lawson. In order to find the rate at which the floodwater is traveling based on the aforementioned information: 32 miles/4 hours = 8 miles/hour. (Rate of Change)

31

CliffsTestPrep Regents Earth Science: The Physical Setting Workbook Base your answers to question 11 on the map and data tables given. The map shows the location of Birdsville and Bundaberg in Australia. The first data table shows the average monthly high temperatures for Birdsville. The second data table includes the latitude and longitude, elevation above sea level, and the average rainfall in January for Birdsville and Bundaberg.

Average Monthly High Temperatures for Birdsville, Australia Month

Temperature (°C)

January

39

February

38

March

35

April

30.5

May

25

June

22

July

21

August

23.5

September

28

October

32.5

November

36

December

38

32

Map of Australia Indian Ocean

Pacific Ocean Bundaberg Birdsville

Key Mountains

N

Observation and Measurement

Information About Two Australian Cities City

Latitude (°S)

Longitude (°E)

Elevation (m)

Average January Rainfall (mm)

Birdsville

25.9

139.4

47

25

Bundaberg

24.9

152.4

14

105

Temperature (°C)

11. On the grid given here, plot with an X the average monthly high temperatures for Birdsville, Australia. Connect the Xs with a line. The average monthly high temperatures for Bundaberg have already been plotted on the graph for you.

40 39 38 37 36 35 34 33 32 31 30 29 28 27 26 25 24 23 22 21 20

Average Monthly High Temperatures

Bundaberg

J

F M A M J J A S O N D Month

33

CliffsTestPrep Regents Earth Science: The Physical Setting Workbook Correct Answer:

Temperature (°C)

You must place at least 10 of the 12 Xs in the appropriate location (as shown here). The Xs must be connected with a line. (Graphs)

34

40 39 38 37 36 35 34 33 32 31 30 29 28 27 26 25 24 23 22 21 20

Average Monthly High Temperatures

Bundabe

J

F M A M J J A S O N D Month

Observation and Measurement Base your answers to question 12 on the map, the graph on the next page, and your knowledge of Earth science. The map shows the length of the growing season in New York State, expressed in days. The growing season is the average number of days between the last frost in spring and the first frost in fall. The graph line shows the relationship between the latitudes of Riverhead, New York; Albany, New York; and Massena, New York; and the length of the growing season at these three locations. Length of Growing Season (in days) 150

150 Massena 165

5 10 5

13

90 Lake Ontario

150

Oswego 180

120 Albany

135

165 135

Elmira 165 150

150 120

135 120

120

135 150 165 210 165 180 195

Riverhead 195

180

35

CliffsTestPrep Regents Earth Science: The Physical Setting Workbook

Length of Growing Season (days)

220 200

Riverhead Oswego

180

Albany 160

Massena

140 120 100 40° N

41° N

42° N

43° N

44° N

45° N

46° N

47° N

48° N

Latitude of Cities (degrees)

12. For Riverhead, Albany, and Massena, state the relationship between latitude and the length of the growing season shown by the graph. Correct Answer: From the graph you can state that as the latitude (x-axis) increases, the length of the growing season (y-axis) decreases. This represents an inverse relationship. (Graphs)

36

Observation and Measurement Base your answers to question 13 on the reading passage and on your knowledge of Earth science. The reading passage provides some background information about a recent fossil discovery. The scale drawing shows the new trilobite Isotelus (A) fossil compared to other trilobite fossils (B, C, D, E) and a typical large trilobite (F).

The World’s Biggest Trilobite A team of Canadian paleontologists examining rock units along the shore of Hudson Bay in northern Manitoba has discovered the world’s largest recorded complete fossil of a trilobite, a many-legged, seadwelling animal inferred to have lived during the late Ordovician Period. The giant creature, measuring 70 centimeters in length, is a new species of the genus Isotelus. This remarkable discovery adds to our knowledge of the diversity of life following one of the greatest increases in the number and types of life-forms in history. The new Isotelus species existed just before the end of the Ordovician Period. A

New Isotelus fossil

B C

D E

F

13. The actual new Isotelus fossil is approximately how many times larger than scale drawing A? Correct Answer: The scale drawing (A) is approximately 5.5 cm in length. The actual size of Isotelus is over 12 times larger (70 cm/5.5 cm).

37

CliffsTestPrep Regents Earth Science: The Physical Setting Workbook Base your answers to question 14 on the map and graphs. The map shows five climate regions of New York State. The bar graphs show average monthly temperatures of four of these climate regions.

4

Temperature (°F)

Region 1 Some Climate Regions of New York State

3

80 60 40 20 0

J

F

M

A

M

J

J

A

S

O

N

D

S

O

N

D

S

O

N

D

S

O

N

D

Region 2 Temperature (°F)

2 1

80 60 40 20 0

J

F

M

A

M

J

J

A

5 Temperature (°F)

Region 3 80 60 40 20 0

J

F

M

A

M

J

J

A

Temperature (°F)

Region 4 80 60 40 20 0

J

F

M

A

M

J

J

A

14. On the grid provided here, construct a bar graph of the average monthly temperatures provided for climate region 5. January has been completed for you.

38

Observation and Measurement

Average Temperatures for Climate Region 5 °F

January

34

February

36

March

42

April

52

May

61

June

72

July

79

August

74

September

68

October

55

November

49

December

39

Average Monthly Temperatures of Climate Area 5 Average Monthly Temperature (°F)

Month

80 70 60 50 40 30 20 10 0 J

F

M

A

M

J

J

A

S

O

N

D

Month

Correct Answer:

Average Monthly Temperature (°F)

Average Monthly Temperatures of Climate Area 5 80 70 60 50 40 30 20 10 0 J

F

M

A

M

J

J

A

S

O

N

D

Month

39

CliffsTestPrep Regents Earth Science: The Physical Setting Workbook Base your answers to question 15 on the map and data table shown here. The map shows some tectonic plates and the boundaries between them. Letters A and B are locations on Earth’s surface. The data table shows the depth below Earth’s surface of five earthquakes measured from location A toward location B. Map

Eurasian Plate

A

B

Indian-Australian Plate

Earthquake

Distance from Location A toward Location B (km)

Depth below Earth’s Surface (km)

1

100

600

2

200

400

3

250

300

4

300

250

5

400

60

40

Observation and Measurement

15. On the grid provided here, plot the depths of the five earthquakes from location A toward location B. Earth’s Surface

A

B

Depth below Earth’s Surface (km)

100

200

300

400

500

600

700 0

100

200

300

400

500

Distance from Location A Toward Location B (km)

41

CliffsTestPrep Regents Earth Science: The Physical Setting Workbook Correct Answer: Earth’s Surface

A

B

Depth below earth’s Surface (km)

100

200

300

400

500

600

700 0

100

200

300

400

500

Distance from Location A Toward Location B (km)

(Graphs)

42

Observation and Measurement Base your answers to questions 16 and 17 on the map and cross section of the Finger Lakes Region shown and on your knowledge of Earth science. Finger Lakes Region of New York State Auburn

igu da an Ca n

Honeoye

Penn Yan

Keu

ka

Hemlock

o asc

uga Cay

Canadice

us

Ow

ca Sene

a

Geneva

Cones

o s isc le Ot te ea

Waterloo

an Sk

Canandaigua

Ithaca

N Watkins Glen

10 mi

Skaneateles

Otisco

Owasco Cayuga

Seneca

Keuka

Canandaigua

500

0

5

Elevation and Depth of the Finger Lakes of New York State (measured in feet)

Honeoye

Hemlock Canadice

1000

Conesus

0

Sea level

Sediment fill –500

43

CliffsTestPrep Regents Earth Science: The Physical Setting Workbook

16. According to the cross section, how thick from top to bottom is the sediment fill in Seneca Lake? Correct Answer: The bottom of the fill in Seneca Lake is 625 feet below sea level, whereas the top of the fill is at an elevation of 175 feet below sea level. Taking the difference in elevations, the thickness of the fill is approximately 450 feet. (Graphs) 17. During some winters, a few of the Finger Lakes remain unfrozen even though the land around the lakes is frozen. Explain how the specific heat of water can cause these lakes to remain unfrozen. Correct Answer: Water has a very high Specific Heat, meaning the amount of energy required to change the temperature of the water. According to the Earth Science Reference Tables—Specific Heats of Common Materials, liquid water has a heat capacity of 1 calorie/gram C°. Conversely, the other common earth materials have heat capacities that are much lower, meaning the temperature will change more readily.

44

Measuring the Earth Multiple-Choice Questions For each statement or question, choose the number of the word or expression that, of those given, best completes the statement or answer the question. 1. What is the approximate location of the Canary Islands hot spot? (1) (2) (3) (4)

32° S 18° W 32° S 18° E 32° N 18° W 32° N 18° E

Correct Answer: (3) According to the Earth Science Reference Tables Tectonic Plates, the Canary Island Hot Spot is located just off the Western coast of Africa. Using the latitude lines running horizontally on the page, the Canary Islands Hot Spot lies north of the equator, by about 32 degrees. Using the longitude lines running vertically on the page, the hot spot lies west of the Prime Meridian by about 18 degrees. (Latitude and Longitude) 2. The lines on which set of views best represent Earth’s latitude system?

Equatorial view

Polar view

(1)

Equatorial view

(2)

Equatorial view

Polar view

(3)

Polar view

Equatorial view

Polar view

(4)

Correct Answer: (2) Lines of latitude are sometimes referred to as parallels because they all run parallel to the equator. They give the location of a place on the Earth, the angular measurement north or south of the equator. (Latitude and Longitude)

45

CliffsTestPrep Regents Earth Science: The Physical Setting Workbook Base your answers to questions 3 through 6 on the topographic map that follows. Elevations are in feet. Points A and B are locations on the map.

Gr

n ee r ve Ri

300

A 400

300

0

1

2

B

3

4

5

N

Miles

3. Toward which direction does the Green River flow? (1) (2) (3) (4)

northeast northwest southeast southwest

Correct Answer: (2) Rivers flow in the direction that is opposite of the bends in the contour lines. Rivers also flow from higher elevations to lower elevations. (Topographic Maps) 4. What is the gradient along the straight line between points A and B? (1) (2) (3) (4)

46

10 ft/mi 20 ft/mi 25 ft/mi 35 ft/mi

Measuring the Earth Correct Answer: (3) According to the Earth Science Reference Tables, the formula for gradient is: gradient = change in field value/distance. The change in field value represents the difference in the contour lines for points A and B. In this case the difference is 100 ft. The distance can be determined by marking off points A and B on a separate piece of paper and holding it up to the map scale. In this case the distance is 4 miles. 100 ft/4 miles = 25 ft/mile. (Topographic Maps) 5. Which graph best represents the profile along line AB? 500

Elevation (ft)

Elevation (ft)

500

400

300

200

A

Distance (mi) (1)

A

Distance (mi) (3)

B

500

Elevation (ft)

Elevation (ft)

300

200

B

500

400

300

200

400

A

Distance (mi) (2)

B

400

300

200

A

Distance (mi) (4)

B

Correct Answer: (3) A profile is created by holding a separate piece of paper along line AB and marking off each instance where the piece of paper intersects a contour line. By labeling each intersection with the appropriate value for each contour line, one can determine that this profile continually decreases in elevation from 400 ft to 300 ft. (Topographic Maps) 6. What evidence can be used to determine that the land surface in the northeast corner of the map is relatively flat? (1) (2) (3) (4)

a rapidly flowing river a large region covered by water the dark contour line labeled 300 the absence of many contour lines

Correct Answer: (4) When contour lines are far apart, the area has a low gradient (very little change in elevation). Just the opposite, when contour lines are close together, one can infer a large gradient (rapidly changing elevation). In the NE corner the lines are far apart. (Topographic Maps)

47

CliffsTestPrep Regents Earth Science: The Physical Setting Workbook

7. Which temperature field map shows correctly drawn isotherms? A

B

20

21

22

24

28

21

22

24

25

26

20

22

25

25

25

18

21

22

24

25 Distance scale

19

21

23

23

24

0

1

2

3

4

Meters

A

B

A

B

20

21

22

24

28

20

21

22

24

28

21

22

24

25

26

21

22

24

25

26

20

22

25

25

25

20

22

25

25

25

18

21

22

24

25

18

21

22

24

25

19

21

23

23

24

19

21

23

23

24

(1)

(3)

A

B

A

B

20

21

22

24

28

20

21

22

24

28

21

22

24

25

26

21

22

24

25

26

20

22

25

25

25

20

22

25

25

25

18

21

22

24

25

18

21

22

24

25

19

21

23

23

24

19

21

23

23

24

(2)

(4)

Correct Answer: (4) Isotherms are lines that connect points of equal temperature on a field map. Choice 4 is the only map in which isotherms are drawn between points of equal value such that all points along the line represent the same temperature. (Field Maps)

48

Measuring the Earth Base your answers to question 8 on the diagram here, which represents a model of the sky (celestial sphere) for an observer in New York State. The curved arrow represents the Sun’s apparent path for part of one day. The altitude of Polaris is also indicated. Solar noon Polaris

60

70

80

90

80

70

60 50

pa

th

30

30

n’s

20

West

10

10

20

Su

40

40

50

0

0

South

North

Observer

East

8. Where is this observer most likely located? (1) (2) (3) (4)

Massena Oswego Slide Mountain Mt. Marcy

Correct Answer: (3) To determine the location of the observer, you must note the altitude of Polaris. The altitude of Polaris is equal to the latitude of the observer. The altitude of Polaris and, thus, the observer’s latitude is 42 degrees. Now turn to the Earth Science Reference Tables, Generalized Bedrock Geology of NYS. This page offers us locations in New York State, along with their latitude and longitude. Recall that latitude is measured north and south of the equator. Finding 42° north latitude, the only town listed among our choices is Slide Mountain. (Latitude and Longitude)

49

CliffsTestPrep Regents Earth Science: The Physical Setting Workbook Base your answers to questions 9 through 11 on the topographic map. Points A, B, C, D, and X represent locations on the map. Elevations are measured in feet.

Lake Fish Cre ek

B

R o c k

800

M o u n t a i X n 00 C

15

900

00

0

90

10

A

D

Lake 900

N 0

1

2

3

4

5

6 miles

9. What is the highest possible elevation of point X on Rock Mountain? (1) (2) (3) (4)

1,599 ft 1,600 ft 1,601 ft 1,699 ft

Correct Answer: (4) Using the map, it can be determined that the contour interval is 100 ft. using this information, point X is above the 1,600 ft elevation, but less than the 1,700 ft elevation. A contour line would have to be drawn if the elevation reaches 1700 ft. The highest possible value for the elevation of point X is then 1,699 ft. (Topographic Maps) 10. What is the average gradient of the slope along straight line CD? (1) (2) (3) (4)

100 ft/mi 250 ft/mi 500 ft/mi 1,000 ft/mi

Correct Answer: (2) According to the Earth Science Reference Tables, Equations, the gradient of a field value can be calculated as follows.

50

Measuring the Earth

Gradient =

change in field value distance

Using a piece of paper, make two hash marks along the edge to measure the distance from C to D. It is about 2 miles according to the scale provided on the map. The change in elevation between C and D is 500 ft. Substituting these values into the gradient formula, you get Gradient =

1,500 ft - 1,000 ft = 500 ft = 250 ft/mile 2 miles 2 miles

(Topographic Maps)

1700

Elevation (feet)

Elevation (feet)

11. Which cross section best represents the profile along straight line AB?

1500 1300 1100 900 700

A

B

1700 1500 1300 1100 900 700

A

1700 Elevation (feet)

Elevation (feet)

1700 1500 1300 1100 900 700

B (3)

(1)

A

B (2)

1500 1300 1100 900 700

A

B (4)

Correct Answer: (1) First note that point A is at 900 ft and point B is at 1,000 ft; therefore, choice 3 can be eliminated. Next note that the line passes through a lake; therefore, the elevation where the lake exists must be less than 900 feet, otherwise runoff would occur. The only choice that shows this is choice 1. Also, notice that the hill is closer to point B that it is to point A, as also shown by choice 1. (Topographic Maps) 12. Why are Precambrian gneiss cobbles and boulders commonly found on top of the surface bedrock in the Catskills? (1) (2) (3) (4)

The surface bedrock of the Catskills is composed of Precambrian gneiss. The surface bedrock of the Catskills has been overturned. Many meteorites composed of gneiss have landed in the Catskills. Glaciers transported these rocks from the Adirondacks to the Catskills.

51

CliffsTestPrep Regents Earth Science: The Physical Setting Workbook Correct Answer: (4) Turn to the Earth Science Reference Tables, Generalized Landscape Regions of New York State, and locate the Catskills and the Adirondacks. Now find both locations on the Generalized Bedrock Geology of New York State. You’ll notice that the Catskills are shaded with the Devonian symbol. Look at the key for Devonian, and you will see that the Catskills have mostly sedimentary bedrock (limestones, shales, sandstones, and conglomerates). The Adirondacks on the other hand contain bedrock from the middle proterozoic, which is predominantly metamorphic rock. The only way the Catskills could contain gneiss cobbles and boulders is if they were transported there by an agent of erosion such as a glacier. (Landscapes) 13. As a ship crosses the Prime Meridian, an observer on the ship measures the altitude of Polaris at 60°. What is the ship’s location? (1) (2) (3) (4)

60° south latitude and 0° longitude 60° north latitude and 0° longitude 0° latitude and 60° east longitude 0° latitude and 60° west longitude

Correct Answer: (2) The altitude of Polaris is equal to one’s latitude in the Northern Hemisphere. Thus, the position of the ship must be 60° north latitude. Because the ship is crossing the Prime Meridian, it must be at a longitude of 0°. (Latitude and Longitude) 14. Which sequence shows the order in which landscape regions are crossed as an airplane flies in a straight course from Albany, New York, to Massena, New York? (1) (2) (3) (4)

plateau → plain → mountain plateau → mountain → plain plain → mountain → plain mountain → plain → plateau

Correct Answer: (3) Turn to the second and third pages in the Earth Science Reference Tables. Locate Albany and Massena. You’ll notice that if you were to travel from Albany to Massena, you would begin in the lowlands, cross over the mountains, and then end up in the lowlands. (Landscapes)

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Measuring the Earth

15. The cross section here shows the rock structure of a deeply eroded, domed mountain region. Igneous intrusion

(Not drawn to scale)

Which map shows the stream drainage pattern that will likely develop as the bedrock is weathered and eroded from this igneous dome?

(1)

(3)

(2)

(4)

Correct Answer: (2) Imagine that you are pouring water over the image and try to picture how the water would drain. The water will move to the lowest point. You can see two ridges on either side caused by the weathering and erosion of the sedimentary rock layers. Choice 2 of the answers shows two circles, which represent the two grooves. (Landscapes)

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CliffsTestPrep Regents Earth Science: The Physical Setting Workbook

16. On each topographic map, the straight-line distance from point A to point B is 5 kilometers. Which topographic map shows the steepest gradient between A and B? B 50

B

35

40

A 30

25

30 A

20

(1)

25

(3)

B 40

20 15

(2)

20

0 A 1

50

20

10

B

30

A

(4)

Correct Answer: (4) According to the Earth Science Reference Tables, Equations, topographic gradient is defined as the change in elevation over a given distance between two points. On a topographic map, large (steep) gradients are indicated by closely spaced isolines, indicating a dramatic change in elevation over a given distance. (Topographic Maps)

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Measuring the Earth

Base your answers to questions 17 through 20 on the maps that follow. Points A, B, C, X, and Y are locations on the topographic map. The small map identifies the New York State region shown in the topographic map.

Cayuta Creek

Topographic Map

76°35'00" 42°10'00"

00

15

B

76°32'30" 42°10'00"

C

A

0

100

15 00

X

Y 1000

00

yu

0 100

Ca

15

ta

Cr

ee

1500

k

42°07'30" 76°35'00"

1

Contour interval 100 feet 1/2

0

1/2

42°07'30" 76°32'30"

1 mile

New York State

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CliffsTestPrep Regents Earth Science: The Physical Setting Workbook

1600 1500 1400 1300 1200 1100 1000 900

Elevation (ft)

Elevation (ft)

17. Which graph best represents the profile from point B to point C?

B

Distance (mi)

C

1600 1500 1400 1300 1200 1100 1000 900

B

Distance (mi)

1600 1500 1400 1300 1200 1100 1000 900

B

Distance (mi)

C

(3) Elevation (ft)

Elevation (ft)

(1)

C

1600 1500 1400 1300 1200 1100 1000 900

B

Distance (mi)

(2)

C

(4)

Correct Answer: (4) Beginning at point B (elevation of 1,500 ft), the map indicates a steep gradient to the valley floor as shown by the closely spaced contour lines. Because no contour line exists at an elevation of 900 ft, the valley floor must be between 999 ft and 901 ft (when constructing your profile, represent the valley floor between these two elevations). From the valley floor, the map indicates a steep gradient to point C as shown by the closely spaced contour lines. The baseline crosses the 1,500 foot contour line twice, but does not cross the 1,600-foot contour line. The elevation between the two 1,500 foot contour lines must be between 1,501 ft and 1,599 ft (when constructing your profile, represent the peak between these two elevations). (Topographic Maps) 18. What is the elevation of point A on the topographic map? (1) (2) (3) (4)

1,700 ft 1,650 ft 1,600 ft 1,550 ft

Correct Answer: (1) The map indicates a contour interval of 100 ft. Because the position of point A lies above the valley floor two contour lines beyond the 1,500-foot index contour, it must have an elevation of 1,700 ft. (Topographic Maps) 19. What is the approximate gradient between point X and point Y? (1) (2) (3) (4)

56

100 ft/mi 250 ft/mi 500 ft/mi 1,000 ft/mi

Measuring the Earth Correct Answer: (4) According to the Earth Science Reference Tables, Equations, gradient is determined by the following equation: difference in elevation between two points/distance. Because the difference between points X and Y is 500 ft and the distance between them is .5 mile, substitution into this equation yields a gradient of 1,000 ft/mile. (Topographic Maps) 20. At the end of the Ice Age, the valley now occupied by Cayuta Creek was a channel for southward flowing glacial melt water. Into which present-day river valley did this melt water most likely flow? (1) (2) (3) (4)

Hudson River Genesee River Delaware River Susquehanna River

Correct Answer: (4) According to the Earth Science Reference Tables, Generalized Bedrock Geology of New York State, the area indicated by the topographic map is closest to the Susquehanna River. (Map Reading)

Open-Ended Questions Base your answers to question 21 on the map and on your knowledge of Earth science. The map shows the location of the epicenter, X, of an earthquake that occurred on April 20, 2002, about 29 kilometers southwest of Plattsburgh, New York. Plattsburgh, New York Earthquake on April 20, 2002 45° N

New York 44.8° N

Plattsburgh

Peru Keeseville

n

plai

ham

X

eC

Lak

44.6° N

Ausable Forks

Burlington

44.4° N

Lake Placid 44.2° N

Vermont

44° N 74° W

Middlebury 73.8° W

73.6° W

73.4° W

0

10

73.2° W

20

73° W

30 km

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CliffsTestPrep Regents Earth Science: The Physical Setting Workbook

21. State the latitude and longitude of this earthquake epicenter. Express your answers to the nearest tenth of a degree and include the compass directions. Correct Answer: The Earthquake epicenter is at 44.5° N latitude and 73.7° W longitude. Lines of latitude are measured north or south of the equator, are parallel, and never intersect. Lines of longitude are measured east or west of the Prime Meridian, and they intersect at the poles. (Latitude and Longitude) Base your answers to questions 22 and 23 on the diagram provided, which shows observations made by a sailor who left his ship and landed on a small deserted island on June 21. The diagram represents the apparent path of the Sun and the position of Polaris, as observed by the sailor on this island. Sailor’s Observations on the Deserted Island 70

80

90

80

70 60

60

50 40

40

50

20

30

Jun

20

Apparent position of Polaris

30

Sun’s apparent path

10

10

e 21

S

N

0

0

W

E

22. Based on the sailor’s observations, what is the latitude of this island? Include the units and the compass direction in your answer. Correct Answer: Because Polaris is 23.5° above the horizon, the latitude of the observer is 23.5° north. (Latitude and Longitude) 23. The sailor observed a one hour difference between solar noon on the island and solar noon at his last measured longitude onboard his ship. How many degrees of longitude is the island from the sailor’s last measured longitude onboard his ship? Correct Answer: Lines of longitude run from the North to the South Poles. Because the Earth rotates through 360° in 24 hours, Earth’s rotation rate can be determined as follows. rotation rate =

360c = 15 degrees/hour 24 hours

Since the difference between the solar noon time was one hour, it can be inferred that the difference in longitude is 15 degrees. (Latitude and Longitude)

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Measuring the Earth Base your answers to question 24 on the information and on your knowledge of Earth science.

“Herkimer Diamonds” Gem-quality “Herkimer Diamonds” are hexagonal-shaped quartz crystals found in some of the surface bedrock of Herkimer, New York. Herkimer is located at approximately 43° north latitude and 75° west longitude. The oldest of these gemstones are believed to be approximately 500 million years old. These quartz crystals are magnificent works of nature that have a natural diamond like geometric shape formed when the quartz crystallized. Natural “Herkimer Diamonds” were not cut or shaped by humans. Due to their appearance, “Herkimer Diamonds” are commonly used in jewelry. These quartz crystals are not true diamonds. 75°

74°

45°

76° 79°

78°

77° 44°

Lake Ontario 43°

43°

Lake Erie 42°

42° 79°

78°

77°

76° 75° 41°

74°

73°

24. On the New York State map provided, mark with a dot the location of Herkimer, New York. Draw a small circle around your dot to make the dot easily seen.

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CliffsTestPrep Regents Earth Science: The Physical Setting Workbook Correct Answer: 75°

74°

45°

76° 79°

78°

77° 44°

Lake Ontario 43°

43°

Lake Erie 42°

42° 79°

78°

77°

76° 75° 41°

74°

60

73°

Measuring the Earth Base your answers to questions 25 and 26 on the topographic map shown here. Points A, B, C, and D are reference points on the map. Elevations are measured in meters.

C 35

0

A

B 25 0

300

Lo

ng

Cr ee

k

D

Contour interval = 10 meters

N 0

1

2 kilometers

Profile along Line AB 320 310

Elevation (meters)

300 290 280 270 260 250 240 230 220

A

Distance (km)

B

25. On the grid provided, construct a topographic profile along line AB, by plotting a point for the elevation of each contour line that crosses line AB and connecting the points with a smooth, curved line to complete the profile.

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CliffsTestPrep Regents Earth Science: The Physical Setting Workbook Correct Answer: Profile along Line AB 320 310

Elevation (meters)

300 290 280 270 260 250 240 230 220

A

Distance (km)

B

26. Calculate the gradient of Long Creek between points C and D and label the answer with the correct units. Correct Answer: According to the Earth Science Reference Tables, Formulas, gradient is calculated by applying the formula: change in field value/distance. According to the map, point C occupies an elevation of 310 m and point D occupies an elevation of 230 m. Points C and D are 3 km apart. Thus, the gradient between points C and D is 80 m/3km = 27 m/km. (Topographic Maps )

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Measuring the Earth Base your answers to questions 27 and 28 on the diagrams. The top diagram shows a depression and hill on a gently sloping area. The bottom diagram is a topographic map of the same area. Points A, X, and Y are locations on Earth’s surface. A dashed line connects points X and Y. Elevation is indicated in feet.

10

20

A X

Y 40

10 20

30

20

N 10

27. What is a possible elevation of point A? Correct Answer: Between 21 and 29 feet. Point A is between two 20-foot contour lines and a 30-foot contour line. (Topographic Maps)

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CliffsTestPrep Regents Earth Science: The Physical Setting Workbook

Elevation (ft)

28. On the grid provided, construct a topographic profile along line XY, by plotting a point for the elevation of each contour line that crosses line XY. Points X and Y have already been plotted on the grid. Connect the points with a smooth, curved line to complete the profile. 50 40 30 20 X 10 0

Y

Distance

Correct Answer:

Elevation (ft)

Example of a 2-credit response: 50 40 30 20 X 10 0

(Topographic Maps)

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Y

Distance

Minerals and Rocks Multiple-Choice Questions For each statement or question, choose the number of the word or expression that, of those given, best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Which type of rock most likely contains fossils? (1) (2) (3) (4)

scoria gabbro schist shale

Correct Answer: (4) Fossils are found mostly in sedimentary rock. Using the Earth Science Reference Tables, Schemes for Rock Identification, only shale is a type of sedimentary rock. (Sedimentary Rock) 2. Which nonfoliated rock forms only in a zone of contact metamorphism? (1) (2) (3) (4)

conglomerate hornfels pegmatite quartzite

Correct Answer: (2) According to the Earth Science Reference Tables, Scheme for Metamorphic Rock Identification, only metamorphic rocks are characterized as being foliated (or nonfoliated)—a condition in which minerals assume a parallel orientation due to heat and pressure. Hornfels and quartzite are the only metamorphic rocks listed as possible answers. By looking further at the table, it can be noted that hornfels forms by contact metamorphism. (Metamorphic Rocks) 3. A student obtains a cup of quartz sand from a beach. A saltwater solution is poured into the sand and allowed to evaporate. The mineral residue from the saltwater solution cements the sand grains together, forming a material that is most similar in origin to (1) (2) (3) (4)

an extrusive igneous rock. an intrusive igneous rock. a clastic sedimentary rock. a foliated metamorphic rock.

Correct Answer: (3) Turn to the Rock Cycle diagram in the Earth Science Reference Tables. Look at the arrow pointing to Sedimentary Rocks. You will notice that Sedimentary Rocks are made of sediments that were compacted and cemented into a rock. (Sedimentary Rocks)

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CliffsTestPrep Regents Earth Science: The Physical Setting Workbook

4. The diagram here represents a naturally occurring geologic process.

Stage 1

Stage 2

Stage 3

Which process is best illustrated by the diagram? (1) (2) (3) (4)

cementation erosion metamorphism weathering

Correct Answer: (4) The exposure of minerals to moisture will eventually lead to their chemical weathering. Chemical weathering is represented in the diagram, for the end products (calcium, potassium, sodium salts) are different from the starting material (feldspar). (Sedimentary Rocks) 5. The diagram shows four mineral samples, each having approximately the same mass.

Quartz

Amphibole

Pyroxene

Galena

If all four samples are placed together in a closed, dry container and shaken vigorously for 10 minutes, which mineral sample would experience the most abrasion? (1) (2) (3) (4)

quartz amphibole pyroxene galena

Correct Answer: (4) The Earth Science Reference Tables have Moh’s scale of hardness. Of the four choices, galena is the softest (2.5 on the scale), which means that it will undergo the most abrasion. (Minerals)

66

Minerals and Rocks Base your answers to questions 6 and 7 on the photograph, which shows several broken samples of the same colorless mineral.

6. Which physical property of this mineral is most easily seen in the photograph? (1) (2) (3) (4)

fracture hardness streak cleavage

Correct Answer: (4) Cleavage is the tendency of a mineral to break along the zones of weakness and form smooth to semismooth parallel surfaces. In the diagram, you can see that almost all sides of the mineral pieces are smooth and opposite sides are parallel. (Minerals) 7. Which mineral is most likely shown in the photograph? (1) (2) (3) (4)

quartz calcite galena halite

Correct Answer: (4) According to the Earth Science Reference Tables, Properties of Common Minerals, halite has cubic cleavage. The reference tables provide a sketch drawing for halite. Compare this to the diagram; the resemblance is undisputable. (Minerals)

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CliffsTestPrep Regents Earth Science: The Physical Setting Workbook Base your answers to questions 8 and 9 on the following graph, which shows the crustal temperature and pressure conditions under which three different minerals with the same chemical composition (Al2SiO5) crystallize. Conditions under Which Three Different Minerals Composed of Al2SiO5 Form

Pressure (thousands of atmospheres)

9 8 7

Kyanite forms 6 5

Sillimanite forms

4 3 2

Andalusite forms

1 0

300

500 700 Temperature (°C)

900

8. Which mineral has a chemical composition most similar to andalusite, sillimanite, and kyanite? (1) (2) (3) (4)

pyrit gypsum dolomite potassium feldspar

Correct Answer: (4) The question indicates that andalusite, sillimanite, and kyanite are all made of the compound Al2SiO5. The Earth Science Reference Tables show the chemical composition of common minerals. Potassium feldspar contains Al, Si and O, where the other choices do not. (Minerals) 9. If bedrock at a collisional plate boundary contains andalusite crystals, these crystals are changed into sillimanite and/or kyanite as temperature and pressure conditions increase. What is this process called? (1) (2) (3) (4)

68

weathering solidification metamorphism cementation

Minerals and Rocks Correct Answer: (3) The question states that the temperature and pressure conditions increased to form sillimanite and/or kyanite. The rock cycle in the Earth Science Reference Tables shows that heat and pressure form metamorphic rock. (Metamorphic Rocks) 10. When granite melts and then solidifies, it becomes (1) (2) (3) (4)

a sedimentary rock. an igneous rock. a metamorphic rock. sediments.

Correct Answer: (2) According to the Earth Science Reference Tables, Rock Cycle in Earth’s Crust, igneous rock forms from the solidification of molten material derived from the melting of ANY type of crustal rock. (Igneous Rocks) 11. A human fingernail has a hardness of approximately 2.5. Which two minerals are softer than a human fingernail? (1) (2) (3) (4)

calcite and halite sulfur and fluorite graphite and talc pyrite and magnetite

Correct Answer: (3) A softer mineral will have a hardness less than that of a human fingernail. Turn to the Earth Science Reference Tables, Properties of Common Minerals. Identify under the “Hardness” column, which pair has a hardness less than 2.5. Only both graphite and talc are softer than the human fingernail. (Minerals) 12. During the Permian Period, sedimentary bedrock in the Appalachian Region was subjected to high temperature and pressure. Calcite deposits that had existed in this environment would most likely have formed (1) (2) (3) (4)

schist. gabbro. marble. gneiss.

Correct Answer: (3) According to the Earth Science Reference Tables, Scheme for Metamorphic Rock Identification, the metamorphism of a calcite-rich rock such as limestone results in the formation of marble. (Metamorphic Rocks)

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CliffsTestPrep Regents Earth Science: The Physical Setting Workbook

13. The photograph shows the intergrown crystals of a pegmatite rock.

(Actual size)

Which characteristic provides the best evidence that this pegmatite solidified deep underground? (1) (2) (3) (4)

low density light color felsic composition very coarse texture

Correct Answer: (4) Because the diagram is to scale, measuring the crystals yields some crystal sizes as large as 7 to 10 cm. According to the Earth Science Reference Tables, Scheme for Igneous Rock Identification, pegmatite is an intrusive, very coarse-grained rock. The coarse-grained crystals are the result of magma cooling over a very long period of time, allowing for the crystals to grow to a very large size. (Igneous Rocks)

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Minerals and Rocks

Size of Crystals

14. The graph shows the relationship between the cooling time of magma and the size of the crystals produced.

Cooling Time

Granite Rhyolite Pumice

Size of Crystals

Size of Crystals

Which graph correctly shows the relative positions of the igneous rocks granite, rhyolite, and pumice?

Cooling Time

Pumice Rhyolite Granite

Cooling Time

Pumice Granite Rhyolite

Cooling Time

(2)

(3) Size of Crystals

Size of Crystals

(1)

Rhyolite Pumice Granite

Cooling Time

(4)

Correct Answer: (1) According to the Earth Science Reference Tables, Scheme for Igneous Rock Identification, pumice exhibits a noncrystalline texture, indicative of an extremely rapid cooling rate. By comparison, rhyolite exhibits a fine texture whose crystals are less than 1 mm, cooling at a slightly slower rate. Finally, granite exhibits a coarse texture whose crystals range from 1 to 10 mm, having the slowest cooling rate. (Igneous Rocks)

CliffsTestPrep Regents Earth Science: The Physical Setting Workbook

15. The rock shown has a foliated texture and contains the minerals amphibole, quartz, and feldspar arranged in coarse-grained bands.

Which rock is shown? (1) (2) (3) (4)

slate dunite gneiss quartzite

Correct Answer: (3) According to the Earth Science Reference Tables, Scheme for Metamorphic Rock Identification, gneiss is a medium- to course-grained, banded metamorphic rock that could contain the following minerals: mica, quartz, feldspar, amphibole, garnet, and pyroxene. Slate is also a metamorphic rock, but would only be made from the mineral mica and have fine grain size. Dunite is an igneous rock that, according to the Earth Science Reference Tables, Scheme for Igneous Rock Identification, is coarse grained, but would only contain the mineral olivene. Quartzite is a metamorphic rock, but would only have the mineral quartz. (Metamorphic Rocks)

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Minerals and Rocks

16. This diagram represents a part of the crystal structure of the mineral kaolinite.

Structure of Kaolinite

An arrangement of atoms such as the one shown in the diagram determines a mineral’s (1) (2) (3) (4)

age of formation. infiltration rate. physical properties. temperature of formation.

Correct Answer: (3) The physical properties of a mineral, such as hardness, cleavage, and fractures, are based on a mineral’s atomic arrangement. Physical properties from one mineral to the next vary due to difference in their atomic arrangement. (Minerals)

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CliffsTestPrep Regents Earth Science: The Physical Setting Workbook

17. Which process could lead directly to the formation of pumice rock? (1) (2) (3) (4)

precipitation of minerals from evaporating seawater metamorphism of unmelted rock material deposition of quartz sand explosive eruption of lava from a volcano

Correct Answer: (4) According to the Earth Science Reference Tables, Scheme for Igneous Rock Identification, pumice is an extrusive, glassy, vesicular rock. Extrusive means that the rock forms above Earth’s surface in a volcanic environment. Glassy implies that the crystals are very small, indicating that they formed at a low temperature. The vesicular gas pockets would indicate that there were gas pockets trapped in the rock when it formed, again indicating that the rock cooled rapidly. (Igneous Rocks) 18. Rocks are classified as igneous, sedimentary, or metamorphic based primarily on their (1) (2) (3) (4)

texture. crystal or grain size. method of formation. mineral composition.

Correct Answer: (3) According to the Earth Science Reference Tables, Rock Cycle in Earth’s Crust, rocks are classified based on their method of formation. For example, any rock formed by the melting of parent material to form magma followed by its solidification is classified as an igneous rock. (Rock Cycle) 19. Which home-building material is made mostly from the mineral gypsum? (1) (2) (3) (4)

plastic pipes window glass drywall panels iron nails

Correct Answer: (3) Using the Earth Science Reference Tables, Properties of Common Minerals, locate the mineral gypsum. Under the column “Uses,” you can see that plaster of paris and drywall are listed. (Minerals) 20. Which phrase best describes coal? (1) (2) (3) (4)

74

low density, mafic chemical precipitate organic plant remains glassy texture, volcanic

Minerals and Rocks Correct Answer: (3) According to the Earth Science Reference Tables, Scheme for Sedimentary Rock Identification, coal is classified as bioclastic rock composed primarily of carbonized plant remains. (Sedimentary Rocks) 21. Wavy bands of light and dark minerals visible in gneiss bedrock probably formed from the (1) (2) (3) (4)

cementing together of individual mineral grains. cooling and crystallization of magma. evaporation of an ancient ocean. heat and pressure during metamorphism.

Correct Answer: (4) On the Earth Science Reference Tables, you will notice that gneiss is a metamorphic rock. If you look at the “Rock Cycle in Earth’s Crust,” you will notice that metamorphic rocks form from heat and pressure. (Metamorphic Rocks) 22. Which mineral will scratch glass (hardness = 5.5), but not pyrite? (1) (2) (3) (4)

gypsum fluorite orthoclase quartz

Correct Answer: (3) According to the Earth Science Reference Tables, Properties of Common Minerals, orthoclase (potassium feldspar) has a hardness of 6, suggesting that it can scratch glass (5.5), but not pyrite (6.5). (Minerals) 23. The table here shows the hardness of four common materials.

Hardness of Four Materials Material

Hardness

human fingernail

2.5

copper penny

3.0

window glass

4.5

steel nail

6.5

Which statement best describes the hardness of the mineral dolomite? (1) (2) (3) (4)

Dolomite can scratch window glass, but cannot be scratched by a fingernail. Dolomite can scratch window glass, but cannot be scratched by a steel nail. Dolomite can scratch a copper penny, but cannot be scratched by a fingernail. Dolomite can scratch a copper penny, but cannot be scratched by a steel nail.

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CliffsTestPrep Regents Earth Science: The Physical Setting Workbook Correct Answer: (3) A harder object will be able to scratch a softer one. According to the Earth Science Reference Tables, dolomite has a hardness of 3.5. Dolomite will be able to scratch a penny, which has a hardness of 3.0. Dolomite can’t be scratched by a fingernail because a fingernail has a hardness of 2.5 and Dolomite is harder than a fingernail. (Minerals) 24. The observed difference in density between continental crust and oceanic crust is most likely due to differences in their (1) (2) (3) (4)

composition. thickness. porosity. rate of cooling.

Correct Answer: (1) The physical properties of a substance are determined by their chemical composition. The continental crust is composed largely of granite, which consists of low-density, felsic minerals. Conversely, the oceanic crust is composed largely of basalt, which consists of high-density, mafic minerals. (Igneous Rocks) 25. The three statements that follow are observations of the same rock sample: ■ ■ ■

The rock has intergrown crystals from 2 to 3 millimeters in diameter. The minerals in the rock are gray feldspar, green olivine, green pyroxene, and black amphibole. There are no visible gas pockets in the rock.

This rock sample is most likely (1) (2) (3) (4)

sandstone. gabbro. granite. phyllite.

Correct Answer: (2) The rock sample must be igneous. The question states that the sample contains intergrown crystals. Now locate the igneous rock chart of the Earth Science Reference Tables. The question states that the crystals are 2 to 3 mm in diameter, which narrows down the choices to gabbro and granite. Next the question states that the sample contains pyroxene and olivine. Find the minerals located below the rocks. Olivine and pyroxene are only on the right side of the reference table; therefore, the rock must be gabbro. (Igneous Rocks)

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Minerals and Rocks

26. Which rock most probably formed directly from lava cooling quickly at Earth’s surface?

Pebbles cemented in sand matrix

Mica crystals in foliated layers

(1)

Gas pockets in glass

(2)

(3)

Large intergrown crystals

(4)

Correct Answer: (2) According to the Earth Science Reference Tables, Scheme for Igneous Rock Identification, rocks containing gas pockets are classified as being extrusive, meaning that the lava from which they formed reached the surface and therefore cooled rapidly. Such rapid cooling did not allow for the formation of large, well-defined mineral crystals. (Igneous Rocks) 27. Most rock gypsum is formed by the (1) (2) (3) (4)

heating of previously existing foliated bedrock. cooling and solidification of lava. compaction and cementation of shells and skeletal remains. chemical precipitation of minerals from seawater.

Correct Answer: (4) Rock gypsum is a crystalline sedimentary rock. Turn to the Earth Science Reference Tables and locate rock gypsum. Under the Comments column, it states, “Crystals from chemical precipitates and evaporites.” The materials that make up a crystalline rock are left behind when seawater evaporates. (Sedimentary Rocks)

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CliffsTestPrep Regents Earth Science: The Physical Setting Workbook

28. The internal atomic structure of a mineral most likely determines the mineral’s (1) (2) (3) (4)

color, streak, and age. origin, exposure, and fracture. size, location, and luster. hardness, cleavage, and crystal shape.

Correct Answer: (4) The internal atomic structure of a mineral determines the physical properties of the mineral. Hardness, cleavage, and crystal shape are all physical properties associated with atomic structure. (Minerals) 29. The photograph below shows a piece of halite that has been recently broken.

Which physical property of halite is demonstrated by this pattern of breakage? (1) (2) (3) (4)

hardness streak cleavage luster

Correct Answer: (3) Cleavage is a physical property exhibited by some minerals when broken along areas of weakness (cleavage planes) to produce nearly even, smooth surfaces. By contrast, when a mineral is broken along regions other than a cleavage plane, the resulting surface is rough and jagged. (Minerals)

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Minerals and Rocks Base your answers to questions 30 through 33 on the two tables here and on your knowledge of Earth science. The first table shows the composition, hardness, and average density of four minerals often used as gemstones. The second table lists the minerals in Moh’s Scale of Hardness from 1 (softest) to 10 (hardest). Gemstone

Mineral Composition

Hardness

Average Density (g/cm3)

emerald

Be3Al2(Si6O18)

7.5–8

2.7

sapphire

Al2O3

9

4.0

spinel

MgAl2O4

8

3.8

zircon

ZrSiO4

7.5

4.7

Key Al = aluminum; Be = beryllium; Mg = magnesium; O = oxygen; Si = silicon; Zr = zirconium

Moh’s Scale of Hardness 1 talc 2 gypsum 3 calcite 4 fluorite 5 apatite 6 feldspar 7 quartz 8 topaz 9 corundum 10 diamond

30. Part of a gemstone’s value is based on the way the gemstone shines in reflected light. The way a mineral reflects light is described as the mineral’s (1) (2) (3) (4)

fracture. hardness. luster. streak.

Correct Answer: (3) Luster is defined as the way a mineral reflects light. On the Earth Science Reference Tables, it’s defined as being “metallic” or “nonmetallic.” (Minerals)

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31. Sapphire is a gemstone variety of which mineral on Moh’s scale of hardness? (1) (2) (3) (4)

corundum diamond fluorite topaz

Correct Answer: (1) The chart shows that sapphire is a 9 on Moh’s scale of hardness and so is corundum. (Minerals) 32. The hardness and density of each gemstone is based primarily on the gemstone’s (1) (2) (3) (4)

internal arrangement of atoms. geologic time of formation. oxygen content. natural abundance.

Correct Answer: (1) Many minerals contain the same elements. Minerals with the same elements can still differ in their physical properties because the elements are arranged differently. An example of the variety of these possibilities is that diamonds, graphite, and coal are all made out of carbon. (Minerals) 33. Which gemstone minerals contain the two most abundant elements by mass in Earth’s crust? (1) (2) (3) (4)

emerald and spinel emerald and zircon sapphire and spinel sapphire and zircon

Correct Answer: (2) The Earth Science Reference Tables list the two most abundant elements by mass as silicon and oxygen. Emerald and zircon both contain silicon and oxygen according to the chart. (Minerals) 34. Bedrock located near Old Forge, New York, would most likely have which characteristics? (1) clastic texture consisting of angular sediments of mostly quartz and feldspar cemented together (2) crystalline texture composed predominantly of gypsum (3) noncrystalline, glassy texture with a dark color (4) foliated texture with mica and feldspar separated into bands Correct Answer: (4) According to the Earth Science Reference Tables, Generalized Bedrock Geology of New York State, the bedrock located near Old Forge consists of metamorphic rocks (gneisses, quartzites, marbles). According to the Scheme for Metamorphic Rock Identification, gneisses consist of micas and feldspars and exhibit banded foliation. (Metamorphic Rocks)

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Minerals and Rocks

Open-Ended Questions 35. The sequence of diagrams here shows how coal is formed. Describe the material and two processes involved in the formation of coal.

Peat Stage 1

Buried peat Stage 2

Coal Stage 3 Correct Answer: According to the diagram, the formation of coal involves the burial and compression of dead plant matter. This can be found in the Earth Science Reference Tables, Rock Cycle in the Earth’s Crust and Scheme for Sedimentary Rock Identification—Chemically and/or Organically Formed Sedimentary Rocks. (Sedimentary Rocks)

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CliffsTestPrep Regents Earth Science: The Physical Setting Workbook Base your answers to question 36 on the geologic cross section. The rock layers have not been overturned. Point A is located in the zone of contact metamorphism.

A I

II I I I I I I I I I I I I II I I I

I

I

II

I

III II

I I I I I

I

I

I

I

I

I

I

I

I

I I II II I I I I I III II

II

I

II II II I

II II

I

I

II

Key Siltstone

Shale

Limestone

Basalt intrusion

Sandstone

Breccia Contact metamorphism

I

I

I

II II

Conglomerate

36. Which metamorphic rock most likely formed at point A? Correct Answer: quartzite or hornfels The diagram shows that point A was located in a layer of sandstone that was altered by the igneous intrusion. If you locate the metamorphic rock chart in the Earth Science Reference Tables, you will see that quartzite is made through the metamorphism of quartz sandstone and that hornfels is made from various rocks changed by heat from nearby magma/lava. Either answer will do. (Metamorphic Rocks) Base your answer to question 37 on the reading passage and maps and on your knowledge of Earth science. The enlarged map shows the location of volcanoes in Colombia, South America.

Fire and Ice—and Sluggish Magma On the night of November 13, 1985, Nevado del Ruiz, a 16,200-foot (4,938 meter) snowcapped volcano in northwestern Colombia, erupted. Snow melted, sending a wall of mud and water raging through towns as far as 50 kilometers away, and killing 25,000 people. Long before disaster struck, Nevado del Ruiz was marked as a trouble spot. Like Mexico City, where an earthquake killed at least 7,000 people in October 1985, Nevado del Ruiz is located along the Ring of Fire. This ring of islands and the coastal lands along the edge of the Pacific Ocean are prone to volcanic eruptions and crustal movements.

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Minerals and Rocks The ring gets its turbulent characteristics from the motion of the tectonic plates under it. The perimeter of the Pacific, unlike that of the Atlantic, is located above active tectonic plates. Nevado del Ruiz happens to be located near the junction of four plate boundaries. In this area an enormous amount of heat is created, which melts the rock 100 to 200 kilometers below Earth’s surface and creates magma. Nevado del Ruiz hadn’t had a major eruption for 400 years before this tragedy. The reason: sluggish magma. Unlike the runny, mafic magma that makes up the lava flows of oceanic volcanoes such as those in Hawaii, the magma at this type of subduction plate boundary tends to be sticky and slow moving, forming the rock andesite when it cools. This andesitic magma tends to plug up the opening of the volcano. It sits in a magma chamber underground with pressure continually building up. Suddenly, tiny cracks develop in Earth’s crust, causing the pressure to drop. This causes the steam and other gases dissolved in the magma to violently expand, blowing the magma plug free. Huge amounts of ash and debris are sent flying, creating what is called an explosive eruption. Oddly enough, the actual eruption of Nevado del Ruiz didn’t cause most of the destruction. It was caused not by lava but by the towering walls of sliding mud created when large chunks of hot ash and pumice mixed with melted snow. Locator Plate Map

Enlarged Map Showing Volcanoes of Colombia Caribbean Sea

North America

Pacific Ocean

Colombia South America

Nevado del Ruiz Tolima

Pacific Ocean

Huila Purace Dona Juana Galeras

0 150 300 km 0

150

300 miles

Key Volcanoes

37. Vesicular texture is very common in igneous rocks formed during andesitic eruptions. Explain how this texture is formed. Correct Answer: Vesicular textures are created as gases become trapped in the rapidly cooling lava, forming gas pockets in the resulting rock. This can be found in the Earth Science Reference Tables, Scheme for Igneous Rock Identification–Texture. (Igneous Rocks)

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CliffsTestPrep Regents Earth Science: The Physical Setting Workbook Base your answers to questions 38 and 39 on the information, table, and photographs shown and on your knowledge of Earth science.

“Herkimer Diamonds” Gem-quality “Herkimer Diamonds” are hexagonal-shaped quartz crystals found in some of the surface bedrock of Herkimer, New York. Herkimer is located at approximately 43° north latitude and 75° west longitude. The oldest of these gemstones are believed to be approximately 500 million years old. These quartz crystals are magnificent works of nature that have a natural diamond-like geometric shape formed when the quartz crystallized. Natural “Herkimer Diamonds” were not cut or shaped by humans. Due to their appearance, “Herkimer Diamonds” are commonly used in jewelry. These quartz crystals are not true diamonds.

Mineral Characteristics of “Herkimer Diamonds” (Quartz) and True Diamonds Mineral

Color

Chemical Composition

Luster

Hardness

Dominant Form of Breakage

“Herkimer Diamond” (quartz)

Colorless or variable

SiO2

Glassy

7

Fracture

True diamond

Colorless or variable

C

Glassy

10

Cleavage

Photographs of “Herkimer Diamonds” (Quartz)

38. List two mineral characteristics that differ between “Herkimer Diamonds” and true diamonds. Correct Answer: According to the passage, “Herkimer Diamonds” are not diamonds and, therefore, do not share any physical characteristics with true diamonds. Thus, “Herkimer Diamonds” must differ from true diamonds in terms of chemical composition, hardness, and dominant form of breakage. (Minerals) 39. State one use for “Herkimer Diamonds” (quartz), other than their use in jewelry. Correct Answer: According to the Earth Science Reference Tables, Properties of Common Minerals–Uses, quartz is used for the production of glass and electronics. (Minerals)

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Minerals and Rocks Base your answer to question 40 on the passage and on your knowledge of Earth Science.

A New Oregon Volcano? The Three Sisters are 10,000-foot volcanic mountain peaks in Oregon. Volcanic eruptions began building the Three Sisters from andesitic lava and cinders 700,000 years ago. The last major eruption occurred 2,000 years ago. West of the Three Sisters peaks, geologists have recently discovered that Earth’s surface is bulging upward in a bull’s-eye pattern 10 miles wide. There is a 4-inch rise at its center, which geologists believe could be the beginning of another volcano. The uplift was found by comparing satellite images. This uplift in Oregon may allow the tracking of a volcanic eruption from its beginning, long before the smoke and explosions begin. This uplift is most likely caused by an upflow of molten rock from more than 4 miles below the surface. Rock melts within Earth’s interior and then moves upward in cracks in Earth’s crust, where it forms large underground pools called magma chambers. Magma upwelling often produces signs that help scientists predict eruptions and protect humans. When the pressure of rising magma becomes forceful enough to crack bedrock, swarms of small earthquakes occur. Rising magma releases carbon dioxide and other gases that can be detected at the surface. 40. Identify one of the minerals found in the andesite rock of the Three Sisters volcanoes. Correct Answer: Choose one of the following. ■ ■ ■ ■ ■

quartz plagioclase feldspar biotite amphibole (hornblende) pyroxene

Andesite is an igneous rock. Find the igneous rock chart on the Earth Science Reference Tables. Locate andesite and slide your finger down to see the minerals andesite contains. (Igneous Rocks)

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CliffsTestPrep Regents Earth Science: The Physical Setting Workbook Base your answers to questions 41 through 43 on the flowchart and on your knowledge of Earth science. The flowchart shows the formation of some igneous rocks. The circled letters A, B, C, and D indicate parts of the flowchart that have not been labeled. Some Igneous Rocks

Molten (melted) rock

Magma below Earth’s surface

Lava on or near Earth’s surface

Cooling rate

Cooling rate

A

B

Intrusive igneous rock

Extrusive igneous rock

Very coarse texture

Coarse texture

Fine-grained texture

Glassy texture

Grain size

Grain size

Grain size

Grain size

10 mm or larger

C

Less than 1 mm

Noncrystalline

Example

Examples

Examples

Example

Pegmatite

Granite

Gabbro

Rhyolite

Basalt

D

41. Contrast the rate of cooling at A that forms intrusive igneous rock with the rate of cooling at B that forms extrusive igneous rock. Correct Answer: Intrusive igneous rocks cool slowly, while extrusive igneous rocks cool quickly. (Igneous Rocks) 42. Give the numerical grain-size range that should be placed in the flowchart at C. Units must be included in your answer. Correct Answer: 1 mm to 10 mm. Look at the Earth Science Reference Tables under the column Grain Size. Find rocks with a coarse texture like granite, diorite, and gabbro. (Igneous Rocks)

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Minerals and Rocks

43. State one igneous rock that could be placed in the flowchart at D. Correct Answer: Acceptable responses include, but are not limited to: obsidian, basaltic glass, pumice, vesicular basalt glass. The Earth Science Reference Tables lists these igneous rocks as “noncrystalline” or “glassy.” (Igneous Rocks) Base your answers to questions 44 through 46 on the cross section that follows, which shows an area near Watertown, New York. The top layer of soil contains broken rock fragments. A representative sample of this layer has been magnified.

Cross Section Soil with broken rock fragments

Magnified View Granite Gneiss

Unweathered limestone bedrock

Sandstone

44. Identify one mineral that could be found in all three rock fragments shown in the magnified view. Correct Answer: Any of the following will do: quartz — feldspar — amphibole — mica. Locate granite, gneiss, and sandstone on the Earth Science Reference Tables. You have an igneous, metamorphic, and a sedimentary rock, respectively. You will find the minerals that each rock contains on its respective chart. (Igneous Rocks, Sedimentary Rocks, Metamorphic Rocks) 45. State one observable characteristic, other than mineral composition, that could help identify the gneiss fragment. Correct Answer: Any of the following will be acceptable. The fragment shows light and dark banding — banded foliation — layering of minerals. The Earth Science Reference Tables lists the metamorphic rocks. Locate gneiss, and you will find the physical properties of the rock. (Metamorphic Rocks) 46. Rocks and minerals are natural resources that are mined in New York State. State one negative impact that should be considered before mining these natural resources.

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CliffsTestPrep Regents Earth Science: The Physical Setting Workbook Correct Answer: Choose any of the following: ■ ■ ■ ■ ■ ■

Rocks and minerals are nonrenewable resources. Mining can result in pollution of the land, water, and air in the region. Mining can result in the removal of topsoil. Miners might be placed in danger. Natural habitats can be destroyed. The landscape can be destroyed. (Minerals)

Base your answers to question 47 on the drawings of six sedimentary rocks labeled A through F.

A Conglomerate

B Breccia

C Sandstone

D Shale

E Limestone

F Rock salt

47. Which table shows the rocks correctly classified by texture? (1) Texture

clastic

bioclastic

crystalline

Rock

A, B, C, D

E

F

Texture

clastic

bioclastic

crystalline

Rock

A, B, C

D

E, F

Texture

clastic

bioclastic

crystalline

Rock

A, C

B, E

D, F

Texture

clastic

bioclastic

crystalline

Rock

A, B, F

E

C, D

(2)

(3)

(4)

Correct Answer: (1) According to the Earth Science Reference Tables, conglomerate, breccia, sandstone, and shale are all clastic. Limestone is bioclastic and rock salt is crystalline. (Sedimentary Rocks)

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The Dynamic Crust Multiple-Choice Questions For each statement or question, choose the number of the word or expression that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. It is inferred that during the early Archean Era the atmosphere of Earth contained water vapor, carbon dioxide, nitrogen, and other gases in small amounts. These gases probably came from (1) (2) (3) (4)

precipitation of groundwater. volcanic eruptions. evaporation of Paleozoic oceans. convection currents in the mantle.

Correct Answer: (2) Gases such as water vapor, carbon dioxide, nitrogen, and sulfur are often emitted during the eruption of a volcano. This, coupled with the knowledge that early Precambrian (Archean) Earth had vast volcanic activity, leaves the best choice for the discovery of the gases mentioned as volcanic eruptions. (Plate Tectonics and Sea Floor Spreading) 2. A seismic station 4,000 kilometers from the epicenter of an earthquake records the arrival time of the first P-wave at 10:00:00. At what time did the first S-wave arrive at this station? (1) (2) (3) (4)

9:55:00 10:05:40 10:07:05 10:12:40

Correct Answer: (2) In the Earth Science Reference Tables, Earthquake P-wave and S-wave Travel Time, locate 4,000 km on the x-axis of the chart. Now move up until you hit the P-wave curve. You need to count the time in between the P and the S curves. Note the time difference between the two curves is 5 minutes and 40 seconds. If the P-wave arrived at 10:00:00, then the S-wave must have arrived 5 minutes and 40 seconds after that. (Earthquakes) 3. Earth’s outer core and inner core are both inferred to be (1) (2) (3) (4)

liquid. solid. composed of a high percentage of iron. under the same pressure.

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CliffsTestPrep Regents Earth Science: The Physical Setting Workbook Correct Answer: (3) According to the Earth Science Reference Tables, Inferred Properties of Earth’s Interior, Earth’s outer and inner cores are inferred to be composed of a large percentage of iron. (Earth’s Interior) 4. The large coal fields found in Pennsylvania provide evidence that the climate of the northeastern United States was much warmer during the Carboniferous Period. This change in climate over time is best explained by the (1) (2) (3) (4)

movements of tectonic plates. effects of seasons. changes in the environment caused by humans. evolution of life.

Correct Answer: (1) According to the Earth Science Reference Tables, Geologic History of New York State, the Carboniferous Period was from 362–290 million years ago. Looking at the Inferred Positions of the Landmasses for the Triassic and the Devonian periods, you can see that North America was part of Pangea and Pennsylvania/New York were very close to the equator. Since this time, Pangea has broken up by tectonic movement, and today Pennsylvania is much farther north of the equator. (Plate Tectonics and Sea Floor Spreading) 5. Which statement correctly describes the density of Earth’s mantle compared to the density of Earth’s core and crust? (1) (2) (3) (4)

The mantle is less dense than the core but more dense than the crust. The mantle is less dense than both the core and the crust. The mantle is more dense than the core but less dense than the crust. The mantle is more dense than both the core and the crust.

Correct Answer: (1) On the Earth Science Reference Tables, you will find the inferred densities of the layers of the Earth. The crust is 2.7 to 3.0 g/cm3, the mantle is 3.3 to 5.5 g/cm3, and the core is 9.9 to 13.0 g/cm3. (Earth’s Interior) 6. A P-wave takes 8 minutes and 20 seconds to travel from the epicenter of an earthquake to a seismic station. Approximately how long will an S-wave take to travel from the epicenter of the same earthquake to this seismic station? (1) (2) (3) (4)

90

6 min 40 sec 9 min 40 sec 15 min 00 sec 19 min 00 sec

The Dynamic Crust Correct Answer: (3) Using the Earth Science Reference Tables, locate the Earthquake P-wave and S-wave Travel Time chart. Put your finger on 8 minutes and 20 seconds. Next slide your finger across to the P-wave line. You will notice that 8 minutes and 20 seconds intersects the P-wave curve at 5,000 km. If you move up the 5,000 km line to the S-wave curve, you will see that 5,000 km intersects the S-wave curve at 15 minutes. (Earthquakes) 7. What is the inferred temperature at the boundary between Earth’s stiffer mantle and outer core? (1) (2) (3) (4)

2,500° C 4,500° C 5,000° C 6,200° C

Correct Answer: (3) According to the Earth Science Reference Tables, Inferred Properties of Earth’s Interior, the temperature at the boundary between the stiffer mantle and the outer core is 5,000° C. Following the boundary between the two layers down to the graph of Temperature vs. Depth, the intersection point is at a temperature of 5,000° C and a depth of a little less than 3,000 km. (Earth’s Interior) 8. Convection currents in the plastic mantle are believed to cause divergence of lithospheric plates at the (1) (2) (3) (4)

Peru-Chile Trench. Mariana Trench. Canary Islands Hot Spot. Iceland Hot Spot.

Correct Answer: (4) In the Earth Science Reference Tables, Tectonic Plates, you will notice that divergent boundaries are drawn with a double line and arrows pointing away from each other. Locate the Iceland Hot Spot in the Northern Atlantic Ocean. You will notice that it is right on a divergent boundary. (Plate Tectonics and Sea Floor Spreading)

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9. The seismogram shows the time that an earthquake P-wave arrived at a seismic station in Albany, New York. Arrival of P-wave

10:00 p.m.

10:05 p.m.

10:10 p.m.

If the earthquake occurred at exactly 10:00 P.M., approximately how far from the earthquake epicenter was Albany, New York? (1) (2) (3) (4)

1,900 km 3,200 km 4,000 km 5,200 km

Correct Answer: (3) According to the seismogram, the P-waves from the earthquake took approximately 7 minutes to reach Albany, New York. According to the Earth Science Reference Tables, Earthquake P-wave and S-wave Travel Time, the epicenter must be approximately 4,000 km away, for that is the distance a P-wave can travel in 7 minutes. (Earthquakes)

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The Dynamic Crust

10. Arrows in the block diagram show the relative movement along a tectonic plate boundary.

lt

u Fa Continent

Ocean floor

Oceanic crust Continental crust

(Not drawn to scale) Between which two tectonic plates does this type of plate boundary exist? (1) (2) (3) (4)

Nazca Plate and South American Plate Eurasian Plate and Indian-Australian Plate North American Plate and Eurasian Plate Pacific Plate and North American Plate

Correct Answer: (4) The Earth Science Reference Tables, Tectonic Plates, indicate that the arrows represent a transform plate boundary. There is a transform plate boundary where the Pacific Plate meets the North American Plate forming the San Andreas Fault in California. (Earthquakes)

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11. How long would it take for the first S-wave to arrive at a seismic station 4,000 kilometers away from the epicenter of an earthquake? (1) (2) (3) (4)

5 min 40 sec 7 min 0 sec 12 min 40 sec 13 min 20 sec

Correct Answer: (3) Using the Earth Science Reference Tables, Earthquake P-wave and S-wave Travel Time, locate the line representing 4 × 103 km along the x-axis; this is the distance to the epicenter. Trace this line upward until it intersects with the line representing the S-wave. At the intersection point, trace leftward toward the reading along the y-axis; this is the travel time of the S-wave. The reading on the travel time axis indicates 12 minutes, and two additional small boxes. Each small box represents 20 seconds. So the total travel time for the S-wave is 12 minutes and 40 seconds. (Earthquakes) 12. The diagram shows the interaction of two tectonic plates.

Volcanic mountain range

Trench Oceanic crust

Continental crust

Upper mantle

Upper mantle

(Not drawn to scale) The type of plate boundary represented in the diagram most likely exists between the (1) (2) (3) (4)

94

Antarctic Plate and the African Plate. Antarctic Plate and the Indian-Australian Plate. South American Plate and the Nazca Plate. South American Plate and the African Plate.

The Dynamic Crust Correct Answer: (3) There are three types of tectonic plate boundaries, Convergent, Divergent, and Transform boundaries. In the diagram, you can tell this is a convergent boundary because there is a subduction zone where the oceanic crust sinks below the continental crust as the plates are pushed together. According to the Earth Science Reference Tables, Tectonic Plates, the South American and Nazca Plate boundary is a convergent boundary. The other choices are either divergent or transform boundaries. (Plate Tectonics and Sea Floor Spreading) 13. Which seismogram was recorded approximately 4,000 kilometers from an earthquake epicenter?

Arrival of P-wave

Arrival of S-wave

Arrival of P-wave

Arrival of S-wave

9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17

9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17

Time (min)

Time (min)

(1)

(3)

Arrival of S-wave Arrival of P-wave

Arrival of P-wave

Arrival of S-wave

9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17

9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17

Time (min)

Time (min)

(2)

(4)

Correct Answer: (3) According to the Earth Science Reference Tables, Earthquake P-wave and S-wave Travel Time, the arrival time difference between P-waves and S-waves over a distance of 4,000 km is approximately 5 minutes and 40 seconds. (Earthquakes)

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CliffsTestPrep Regents Earth Science: The Physical Setting Workbook

14. Based on the theory of plate tectonics, it is inferred that over the past 250 million years North America has moved toward the (1) (2) (3) (4)

northwest. southwest. southeast. northeast.

Correct Answer: (1) Turn to the Earth Science Reference Tables, Tectonic Plates. Locate the MidAtlantic ridge in the middle of the Atlantic Ocean. Notice that the Mid-Atlantic ridge is diverging, causing seafloor spreading. In the northern hemisphere, the arrow is pointing to the northwest implying that North America is moving to the northwest. You can also use the diagrams in the Earth Science Reference Tables, Inferred Position of Earth’s Land Masses. (Plate Tectonics and Sea Floor Spreading) 15. The two most abundant elements by mass in Earth’s crust are oxygen and (1) (2) (3) (4)

potassium. hydrogen. nitrogen. silicon.

Correct Answer: (4) Turn to the Earth Science Reference Tables, Average Chemical Composition of Earth’s Crust, Hydrosphere, and Troposphere. Find the column labeled “Crust” and sub-column “Percent by Mass.” Notice the top two elements in the crust are oxygen followed by silicon. (Earth’s Interior) 16. According to the Geologic History of New York State in the Earth Science Reference Tables, the inferred latitude of New York State 362 million years ago was closest to (1) (2) (3) (4)

where it is now. the North Pole. the Equator. 45° south.

Correct Answer: (3) According to the Earth Science Reference Tables, Geologic History of New York State–Inferred Position of Earth’s Landmasses, New York State was closest to the equator 362 million years ago. (Plate Tectonics)

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The Dynamic Crust

17. The cross section here shows the direction of movement of an oceanic plate over a mantle hot spot, resulting in the formation of a chain of volcanoes labeled A, B, C, and D. The geologic age of volcano C is shown.

8 million years old Ocean A

B

C

D

Plate motion Magma from hot spot

Asthenosphere

What are the most likely geologic ages of volcanoes B and D? (1) (2) (3) (4)

B is 5 million years old, and D is 12 million years old. B is 2 million years old, and D is 6 million years old. B is 9 million years old, and D is 9 million years old. B is 10 million years old, and D is 4 million years old.

Correct Answer: (1) Based on the motion of the plate and the fact that volcano D has moved the farthest from the hotspot, one can infer from the diagram that volcano D is the oldest and that volcano A is the youngest. Therefore, volcano D must be older than 8 million years and volcano B younger. (Plate Tectonics)

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CliffsTestPrep Regents Earth Science: The Physical Setting Workbook

18. The diagram here represents three seismograms showing the same earthquake as it was recorded at three different seismic stations, A, B, and C.

S

P Station A 08:15:00

08:20:00

08:25:00

08:30:00

Key P = P-wave arrival S = S-wave arrival

S

P

00:00:00

Station B 08:15:00

P

08:20:00

08:25:00

08:30:00

08:25:00

08:30:00

hours minutes seconds

S

Station C 08:15:00

08:20:00

Which statement correctly describes the distance between the earthquake epicenter and these seismic stations? (1) (2) (3) (4)

A is closest to the epicenter, and C is farthest from the epicenter. B is closest to the epicenter, and C is farthest from the epicenter. C is closest to the epicenter, and A is farthest from the epicenter. A is closest to the epicenter, and B is farthest from the epicenter.

Correct Answer: (1) According to the Earth Science Reference Tables, Earthquake P-wave and S-wave Travel Time, the difference in P- and S-wave arrival times increases with increasing distance from the epicenter. Therefore, seismic station C must be closest to the epicenter, whereas station A is farthest. (Earthquakes)

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The Dynamic Crust

19. The diagram shows a tectonic plate boundary.

Oceanic Ridge at a Divergent Plate Boundary

Lithosphere

Which mantle hot spot is at a plate boundary like the one shown in this diagram? (1) (2) (3) (4)

Hawaii Hot Spot Yellowstone Hot Spot Galapagos Hot Spot Canary Hot Spot

Correct Answer: (3) According to the Earth Science Reference Tables, Tectonic Plates, only the Galapagos Hot Spot is at a divergent plate boundary. In contrast, the Hawaii, Yellowstone, and Canary hot spots lie well within their respective plate boundaries. (Plate Tectonics)

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20. On the map, line AB is drawn across several of Earth’s tectonic plates in the South Atlantic Ocean.

South American Plate Scotia Plate

A B

Sandwich Plate

Antarctic Plate

Which cross section best represents the plate boundaries and mantle movement beneath line AB? Key Ocean Lithosphere Mantle A

B

A

(3)

(1) A

B

(2)

100

B

A

B

(4)

The Dynamic Crust

Correct Answer: (1) Answering this correctly requires careful inspection of the provided diagram. Turn to the Earth Science Reference Tables, Tectonic Plates. Locate the convergence of the Sandwich and Scotia plates. Notice that the key at the bottom of the page indicates that the Sandwich plate (on the right) is being subducted under the Scotia plate (on the left). You will find this occurring in both choices 1 and 2. Now notice the symbol for the Mid-Ocean Ridge (underwater mountains) occurring on both the left and right sides of the plate interface. This indicates that there are divergent boundaries on both sides of the plate boundary. This is occurring only in choice 1. (Plate Tectonics and Sea Floor Spreading) 21. The diagrams show four major types of fault motion occurring in Earth’s crust. Which type of fault motion best matches the general pattern of crustal movement at California’s San Andreas fault?

Lateral Fault (shearing)

Normal Fault (tension)

(1)

(3)

Reverse Fault (compression)

Thrust Fault

(2)

(4)

Correct Answer: (1) Using the Earth Science Reference Tables, Tectonic Plates, locate the San Andreas Fault along the west coast of North America. Notice the direction of the arrows shows movement of the plates in a side-by-side, lateral fashion. This is called a Lateral or Transform Fault, as is best shown in choice 1. (Plate Tectonic and Sea Floor Spreading)

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22. According to tectonic plate maps, New York State is presently located (1) (2) (3) (4)

at a convergent plate boundary. above a mantle hot spot. above a mid-ocean ridge. near the center of a large plate.

Correct Answer: (4) Turn to the Earth Science Reference Tables, Tectonic Plates. Locate the United States and find the area that includes New York. You’ll notice that New York (along with the east coast of the United States) is located in the center of the North American Plate. (Plate Tectonics and Sea Floor Spreading)

Open-Ended Questions Base your answers to questions 23 through 26 on the world map shown and on your knowledge of Earth science. Letters A through H represent locations on Earth’s surface. 120 140 160 180 160 140 120 100

80

60

40

20

0

20

40

60

80

100 120 70

70 Asia 60

A

North America

50 40

Hawaiian Islands

30 20 10 0 10 20 30 40

F

Europe

B

Asia

50 40

E Atlantic Ocean Africa

Pacific Ocean

South America

D

C

Australia

60

Indian Ocean

G

50

30 20 10 0 10 20 30 40 50

60

60

H Antarctica

70

120 140 160 180 160 140 120 100

102

Antarctica 80

60

40

20

0

20

40

60

80

100 120

70

The Dynamic Crust

23. Explain why most earthquakes that occur in the crust beneath location B are shallower than most earthquakes that occur in the crust beneath location C. Correct Answer: According to the Earth Science Reference Tables, Tectonic Plates, at location B there is a transform plate boundary between the North American and Pacific Plate. At a transform fault the earthquake focus will be very shallow. At location C, there is a Convergent Plate Boundary between the South American and Nazca Plates. At a convergent boundary, one plate will subduct beneath another plate causing very deep earthquake foci. (Earthquakes) 24. Explain why location A has a greater probability of experiencing a major earthquake than location D. Correct Answer: According to the Earth Science Reference Tables, Tectonic Plates, location D is right in the middle of the South American Plate, where the seismic activity will be very low. Location A is located at the Aleutian Trench, a subduction zone, where earthquakes are common. (Earthquakes) 25. Explain why a volcanic eruption is more likely to occur at location E than at location F. Correct Answer: According to the Earth Science Reference Tables, Tectonic Plates, at location E there is the Canary Islands Hot Spot. A hot spot is where the magma from the mantle of the Earth has penetrated the Earth’s crust and formed an isolated volcanic region. Another example of a hotspot region is the Hawaii Hot Spot. Notice that in both cases there are not any plate boundaries nearby. Location F is in the middle of the Eurasian Plate. (Earth’s Interior) 26. Explain why the geologic age of the oceanic bedrock increases from location G to location H. Correct Answer: According to the Earth Science Reference Tables, Tectonic Plates, location G is near the Southeast Indian Ridge where the seafloor is spreading. At the ridge, new rock is being formed, and as the seafloor spreads, the oldest rocks will move away from the ridge as new rocks form at the ridge. (Plate Tectonics and Sea Floor Spreading)

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Base your answers to questions 27 and 28 on the geologic cross section provided here, which represents an outcrop of various types of bedrock and bedrock features in Colorado.

Key Vesicular basalt with zircon crystals with 98.44% U235 and 1.56% Pb207

Vesicular basalt Sandstone Shale Contact metamorphism Fagopsis tree leaf fossil

2 meters

Sequoia tree trunk fossil

1 0

27. On the cross section provided, indicate with arrows the direction of movement on both sides of the fault. Correct Answer:

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The Dynamic Crust As a consequence of faulting, the layers to the left of the fault lie slightly above those to the right. The layers were originally deposited in horizontal layers. (Plate Tectonics) 28. According to this cross section, what is the amount of vertical movement of the shale along the fault? Express your answer to the nearest tenth of a meter. Correct Answer: The amount of vertical movement of the shale layer can be found by measuring the distance between two similar locations (layers) along the fault line. This can be turned into a distance by using the scale given on the diagram. Using the cm ruler on the Earth Science Reference Tables, the displacement of the shale is measured to be approximately 1.7 cm or .02 m. (Plate Tectonics) Base your answers to questions 29 through 31 on the cross section, which shows the major surface features of Earth along 25° S latitude between 75° W and 15° E longitude. Points A, B, and C represent locations on Earth’s crust. 75° W Pacific Ocean

60° W South America

45° W

15° W

30° W

0°

Atlantic Ocean

A

15° E

Africa

B

Mid-ocean ridge

C

(Not drawn to scale)

29. Identify the crustal feature located at point A. Correct Answer: Convergent or Subduction Zone Using the Earth Science Reference Tables, Tectonic Plates, you will see that the area where the Pacific Ocean meets South America is a convergent/ subduction zone known as the Peru-Chile Trench. (Plate Tectonics) 30. Identify the tectonic plate motion that is causing an increase in the distance between South America and Africa. Correct Answer: Divergence or Seafloor spreading On the Earth Science Reference Tables, Tectonic Plates, you will see that the Mid-Atlantic Ridge lies between South America and Africa. This is a divergent zone (moves apart), which causes the ocean floor to spread so that the continents will move farther apart. (Plate Tectonics)

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31. Bedrock samples were taken at the mid-ocean ridge and points B and C. On the grid provided, draw a line to show the relative age of the bedrock samples between these locations.

Relative Age

Older

Younger

B

Mid-ocean ridge

C

Bedrock Sample Location Correct Answer:

Relative Age

Older

Younger

B

Mid-ocean ridge

C

Bedrock Sample Location New rock at the Mid-Atlantic Ridge pushes the older rock outward. The newest rock should be at the ridge, and the oldest rock should be moving outward, near the continents (South America and Africa). (Plate Tectonics)

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The Dynamic Crust Base your answers to question 32 on the map and table. The map shows the name and location of the volcanic peaks in the Cascade Mountain Range of the northwestern United States west of the Yellowstone Hot Spot. The table shows the major eruptions of each peak over the past 4,000 years.

Mount Baker

Pacific Ocean

Glacier Peak Mount Rainier Washington

Mount St. Helens Mount Adams Mount Hood Mount Jefferson Three Sisters

Oregon

Newberry Volcano Crater Lake Mount McLoughlin

California

Medicine Lake Volcano Mount Shasta Lassen Peak

4,000

3,000

2,000

1,000

0

Years before present Key

Volcanic eruption

32. On the cross section provided, place an arrow in the continental crust and an arrow in the oceanic crust to show the relative directions of plate movement.

Cascade volcanic mountains

West

East Continental crust

Oceanic crust Rigid mantle

Rigid mantle Asthenosphere

Asthenosphere

( Not drawn to scale)

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CliffsTestPrep Regents Earth Science: The Physical Setting Workbook Correct Answer: Using the Earth Science Reference Tables, Tectonic Plates, locate the western coastal region of the United States. Using the key at the bottom of the reference table, notice that the eastern side of the plate boundary is overriding the western subducting side. (Plate Tectonics and Sea Floor Spreading)

Cascade volcanic mountains

West

East Continental crust

Oceanic crust Rigid mantle

Rigid mantle Asthenosphere

Asthenosphere

( Not drawn to scale) 33. Which layer of Earth is composed of both the crust and the rigid mantle? Correct Answer: Using the Earth Science Reference Tables, Inferred Properties of Earth’s Interior, notice the lithosphere is characterized as being composed of both the crust and mantle. (Earth’s Interior)

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The Dynamic Crust Base your answer to question 34 on the map and data table shown here. The map shows some tectonic plates and the boundaries between them. Letters A and B are locations on Earth’s surface. The data table shows the depth below Earth’s surface of five earthquakes measured from location A toward location B. Map

Eurasian Plate

A

B

Indian-Australian Plate

Earthquake

Distance from Location A toward Location B (km)

Depth below Earth’s Surface (km)

1

100

600

2

200

400

3

250

300

4

300

250

5

400

60

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34. Identify the type of plate boundary or geologic feature found at location B. Correct Answer: Using the Earth Science Reference Tables, Tectonic Plates, locate this region on the map. The interface between spot A and B is called the Mariana Trench, which is an underwater valley. Using the key at the bottom of the reference table, it’s evident that this boundary is a Convergent Plate Boundary with B’s side subducting under the overriding A’s side. (Plate Tectonics and Sea Floor Spreading) Base your answers to questions 35 through 38 on the information given and on your knowledge of Earth science. In the 1930s, most scientists believed that Earth’s crust and interior were solid and motionless. A small group of scientists were talking about “continental drift,” which is the idea that Earth’s crust is not stationary, but is constantly shifting and moving. From seismic data, geophysical evidence, and laboratory experiments, scientists now generally agree that lithospheric plates move at the surface. Both Earth’s surface and interior are in motion. Solid rock in the mantle can be softened and shaped when subjected to the heat and pressure within Earth’s interior over millions of years. Subduction processes are believed by many scientists to be the driving force of plate tectonics. At present, this theory cannot be directly observed and confirmed. The lithospheric plates have moved in the past and are still moving today. The details of why and how they move will continue to challenge scientists. 35. Earth’s crust is described as “constantly shifting and moving.” Give one example of geologic evidence that supports the conclusion that continents have drifted apart. Correct Answer: An example supporting the conclusion that continents have drifted apart is the fact that certain continental landmasses appear to fit together along their shorelines. Mineral deposits and dinosaur fossils link together the eastern edge of South America and the western edge of Africa. (Plate Tectonics) 36. The information given suggests that “subduction processes are the driving force of plate tectonics.” Identify a specific location of a subduction zone on Earth. Correct Answer: According to the Earth Science Reference Tables, Tectonic Plates, subduction zones occur along convergent plate boundaries where the denser of the two plates dives into the Earth’s mantle. Specific examples of subduction zones include the Aleutian Trench, Peru-Chile Trench, and Mariana Trench. (Plate Tectonics) 37. According to the Earth Science Reference Tables, at what inferred depth is mantle rock partially melted and slowly moving below the lithospheric plates? Correct Answer: According to the Earth Science Reference Tables, Inferred Properties of the Earth’s Interior, mantle rock begins to melt (actual temperature > melting point) at a depth of approximately 70 to 700 km. (Earth’s Interior)

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The Dynamic Crust

38. According to the geologic record, during which geologic time period did the lithospheric plates that made up Pangea begin to break up? Correct Answer: According to the Earth Science Reference Tables, Geologic History of New York State–Important Geologic Events in New York, Pangea began to break up during the Triassic Period. (Geologic History of NYS) Base your answers to questions 39 through 42 on the world map in your answer booklet and on your knowledge of Earth science. The map shows major earthquakes and volcanic activity occurring from 1996 through 2000. Letter A represents a volcano on a crustal plate boundary.

A

Key Earthquakes

Volcanoes

39. Place an X on the map to show the location of the Nazca Plate. Correct Answer: The Nazca Plate can be found in the Earth Science Reference Tables, Tectonic Plates, off of the west coast of South America. (Plate Tectonics and Sea Floor Spreading)

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A

X

Key Earthquakes

Volcanoes

40. Explain why most major earthquakes are found in specific zones instead of being randomly scattered across Earth’s surface. Correct Answer: Most major earthquakes occur at plate boundaries where crustal movement is likely to occur. Earthquakes don’t occur as often in the middle of a plate because there is less crustal movement. (Plate Tectonics and Sea Floor Spreading) 41. Identify the source of the magma for the volcanic activity in Hawaii. Correct Answer: The Hawaiian Islands were formed over a hot spot, which is the source of the magma. Locate the hot spot in the Earth Science Reference Tables, Tectonic Plates, in the middle of the Pacific Plate. (Plate Tectonics and Sea Floor Spreading)

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42. Identify the type of plate movement responsible for the presence of the volcano at location A. Correct Answer: Volcano A is located on a divergent plate boundary. Find location A in the Earth Science Reference Tables, Tectonic Plates. It is in the middle of the Atlantic Ocean (the Mid-Atlantic Ridge). The arrows are pointing away from each other (a divergent boundary). (Plate Tectonics and Sea Floor Spreading) Base your answers to questions 43 through 45 on the reading passage and maps and on your knowledge of Earth science. The enlarged map shows the location of volcanoes in Colombia, South America.

Fire and Ice—and Sluggish Magma On the night of November 13, 1985, Nevado del Ruiz, a 16,200-foot (4,938 meter) snowcapped volcano in northwestern Colombia, erupted. Snow melted, sending a wall of mud and water raging through towns as far as 50 kilometers away, and killing 25,000 people. Long before disaster struck, Nevado del Ruiz was marked as a trouble spot. Like Mexico City, where an earthquake killed at least 7,000 people in October 1985, Nevado del Ruiz is located along the Ring of Fire. This ring of islands and the coastal lands along the edge of the Pacific Ocean are prone to volcanic eruptions and crustal movements. The ring gets its turbulent characteristics from the motion of the tectonic plates under it. The perimeter of the Pacific, unlike that of the Atlantic, is located above active tectonic plates. Nevado del Ruiz happens to be located near the junction of four plate boundaries. In this area an enormous amount of heat is created, which melts the rock 100 to 200 kilometers below Earth’s surface and creates magma. Nevado del Ruiz hadn’t had a major eruption for 400 years before this tragedy. The reason: sluggish magma. Unlike the runny, mafic magma that makes up the lava flows of oceanic volcanoes such as those in Hawaii, the magma at this type of subduction plate boundary tends to be sticky and slow moving, forming the rock andesite when it cools. This andesitic magma tends to plug up the opening of the volcano. It sits in a magma chamber underground with pressure continually building up. Suddenly, tiny cracks develop in Earth’s crust, causing the pressure to drop. This causes the steam and other gases dissolved in the magma to violently expand, blowing the magma plug free. Huge amounts of ash and debris are sent flying, creating what is called an explosive eruption. Oddly enough, the actual eruption of Nevado del Ruiz didn’t cause most of the destruction. It was caused not by lava but by the towering walls of sliding mud created when large chunks of hot ash and pumice mixed with melted snow.

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Locator Plate Map

Enlarged Map Showing Volcanoes of Colombia Caribbean Sea

North America

Pacific Ocean

Colombia South America

Nevado del Ruiz Tolima

Pacific Ocean

Huila Purace Dona Juana Galeras

0 150 300 km 0

150

300 miles

Key Volcanoes

43. What are the names of the four tectonic plates located near the Nevado del Ruiz volcano? Correct Answer: According to the Earth Science Reference Tables, Tectonic Plates, Nevado del Ruiz is located near the South American, Cocos, Nazca, and Caribbean Plates. (Plate Tectonics) 44. What caused most of the destruction associated with the eruption of Nevado del Ruiz? Correct Answer: According to the passage, most of the damage associated with the eruption of Nevado del Ruiz was caused by massive mudflows created as hot volcanic ash and pumice mixed with melting snow. (Plate Tectonics) 45. What caused the magma to expand, blowing the magma plug free? Correct Answer: According to the passage, cracks in the crust overlying the magma chamber decreased the pressure on the magma, causing dissolved gases within to violently expand. (Plate Tectonics)

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Surface Processes and Landscapes Multiple-Choice Questions For each statement or question, choose the number of the word or expression that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Which surface soil conditions allow the most infiltration of rainwater? (1) (2) (3) (4)

steep slope and permeable soil steep slope and impermeable soil gentle slope and permeable soil gentle slope and impermeable soil

Correct Answer: (3) A steep slope will cause higher rates of runoff, not providing the water sufficient amount of time to be absorbed by the ground. Hence, choices 1 and 2 can be eliminated. The more permeable the soil is, the more water that can be absorbed by the soil. (Porosity, Permeability, and Capillarity) 2. Which statement best describes sediments deposited by glaciers and rivers? (1) (2) (3) (4)

Glacial deposits and river deposits are both sorted. Glacial deposits are sorted, and river deposits are unsorted. Glacial deposits are unsorted, and river deposits are sorted. Glacial deposits and river deposits are both unsorted.

Correct Answer: (3) Glacial deposits are usually dropped in place as ice breaks away from a glacier and tend to be unsorted. In contrast, rivers gradually deposit sediments as they lose velocity, whereupon the largest sediments are deposited first, followed by sediments of increasingly smaller size. (Glaciers)

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Rate of Infiltration

Rate of Infiltration

3. Which graph best represents the relationship between soil particle size and the rate at which water infiltrates permeable soil?

Soil Particle Size

(1)

(3)

Rate of Infiltration

Rate of Infiltration

Soil Particle Size

Soil Particle Size

Soil Particle Size

(2)

(4)

Correct Answer: (4) As the size of soil particles increases, it is easier for water to infiltrate into the spaces between these particles. Therefore, this constitutes a direct relationship; if soil particle size increases, so does rate of infiltration. The only graph showing such a relationship is choice number 4. (Porosity, Permeability, Capillarity)

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4. The map shows a river emptying into an ocean, producing a delta.

Ocean

a D e l t

Land

R

i v e r Land

Average Sediment Size Deposited

Average Sediment Size Deposited

Which graph best represents the relationship between the distance from the river delta into the ocean and the average size of sediments deposited on the ocean floor?

Distance from Delta Into the Ocean

(1)

(3)

Average Sediment Size Deposited

Average Sediment Size Deposited

Distance from Delta Into the Ocean

Distance from Delta Into the Ocean

Distance from Delta Into the Ocean

(2)

(4)

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CliffsTestPrep Regents Earth Science: The Physical Setting Workbook Correct Answer: (1) Upon entering the Delta, the river water is going to lose velocity. According to the Earth Science Reference Tables, Relationship of Transported Particle Size to Water Velocity, as the water slows down, it loses the ability to transport larger diameter particles. Therefore, since the graph shows a direct proportion (even though it is not linear), there is a distinct deposition pattern that will occur. As the water slows down, the largest-diameter particles will settle to the bottom first, followed by the middle sized particles, finally the smallest particles will settle last. As a result, the smallest particles will settle furthest from the mouth of the river, and the largest particles will be found closest to the mouth of the river. (Deposition) 5. When rainfall occurs, the rainwater will most likely become surface runoff if the land surface is (1) (2) (3) (4)

sandy. impermeable. covered with grass. nearly flat.

Correct Answer: (2) Runoff, surface water unable to penetrate the ground, will always be greatest in areas in which the ground is impermeable. (Porosity, Permeability, Capillarity) 6. Soil composed of which particle size usually has the greatest capillarity? (1) (2) (3) (4)

silt fine sand coarse sand pebbles

Correct Answer: (1) Capillarity describes the tendency of water to rise upward through the soil against gravity. Capillarity is most apparent in soils composed of fine sediments. According to the Earth Science Reference Tables, Relationship of Transported Particle Size to Water Velocity, the sediment having the smallest diameter that would contribute to the greatest capillarity is silt (.0004 to .006 cm). (Porosity, Permeability, Capillarity)

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7. The diagram represents a map view of a stream drainage pattern.

Which underlying bedrock structure most likely produced this stream drainage pattern?

(1)

(3)

(2)

(4)

Correct Answer: (4) In the choices provided, the only landscape that has parallel valleys, in which the water will accumulate, is choice 4. The other three choices would all produce drainage patterns in which the water would flow in nonparallel directions. (Landscapes)

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8. Landscapes with horizontal bedrock structure, steep slopes, and high elevations are classified as (1) (2) (3) (4)

plateau regions. plain regions. lowland regions. mountain regions.

Correct Answer: (1) This question is essentially a vocabulary question. A plateau has horizontal bedrock, steep slopes, and high elevations. For example, Allegheny Plateau (see page 2 of the Earth Science Reference Tables, Generalized Landscape Regions of New York State) ranges in elevation from 400 ft. to 2,000 ft. above sea level, has steep sloping hills, and has horizontal bedrock. (Landscapes) 9. The map shows the stream drainage patterns for a region of Earth’s surface. Points A, B, C, and D are locations in the region. The highest elevation most likely exists at point (1) (2) (3) (4)

A B C D

Lake Lake •A

•B

Lake

•C

D

•

Lake

0

120

10

20 km

Surface Processes and Landscapes

Correct Answer: (2) Drainage patterns start as many small streams up high converge to one larger stream at lower elevations. The two lakes in which locations A and D exist show drainage patterns emptying into the lake, indicating that the lakes are of low elevation. Location C is midway down the drainage emptying into the lake containing spot D. This means that location C is higher than D. However, location B is the highest elevation of all, being at the start or top of the drainage pattern eventually emptying into the lake containing spot D. (Landscapes) Base your answer to question 10 on the newspaper article shown here and on your knowledge of Earth science.

Fossilized Jellyfish Found in Wisconsin

(5)

(10)

Fossil hunters have unearthed the largest collection of fossilized jellyfish ever discovered, including the largest fossilized jellyfish ever found. The remains of soft-bodied animals such as jellyfish are relatively rare because they don’t have bones, fossil dealer Dan Damrow, James W. Hagadorn of the California Institute of Technology and Robert H. Dott Jr. of the University of Wisconsin at Madison noted in describing the find in the journal Geology. About a half-billion years ago, during the Cambrian period, the quarry in Mosinee, Wis., where the deposits were found was a small lagoon. The jellyfish apparently died when they were washed up by a freak tide or storm, the researchers said. The jellyfish remains were probably preserved because of a lack of erosion from sea water and wind, and a lack of scavengers, the researchers concluded. “It is very rare to discover a deposit which contains an entire stranding event of jellyfish,” Hagadorn said. “These jellyfish are not just large for the Cambrian, but are the largest jellyfish in the entire fossil record.” Washington Post, January 2002

10. Which evidence would lead scientists to suspect that a tide or storm had washed up these jellyfish on a beach? (1) (2) (3) (4)

Primitive life existed on land 500 million years ago. The rock containing the jellyfish fossils has distorted crystal structure. Treeroot fossils appear to have been pitted and folded. Large ripple marks were found in the fossil-containing rock layers.

Correct Answer: (4) During the storm surge of a major storm or during a very high tide, large ripple marks would be seen in the deposition pattern or the silt and sand that gets deposited. The other choices either do not match the reading from the article (for example, there is no mention of treeroot fossils being discovered), or they simply have nothing to do with the way sediments would be deposited by a storm. (Deposition)

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11. During a dry summer, the flow of most large New York State streams generally (1) (2) (3) (4)

continues because some groundwater seeps into the streams. increases due to greater surface runoff. remains unchanged due to transpiration from grasses, shrubs, and trees. stops completely because no water runs off into the streams.

Correct Answer: (1) Stream volume is recharged between rainstorms mostly by groundwater seeping into the stream channels, which maintains the stream’s volume and rate of flow. (Groundwater) 12. The diagrams show gradual stages 1, 2, and 3 in the development of a river delta where a river enters an ocean.

Stage 1

Stage 2

Stage 3

Which statement best explains why the river delta is developing at this site? (1) (2) (3) (4)

The rate of deposition is less than the rate of erosion. The rate of deposition is greater than the rate of erosion. Sea level is slowly falling. Sea level is slowly rising.

Correct Answer: (2) As the velocity of a river or stream decreases, its ability to carry or erode particles also decreases, upon which it will begin to deposit its load. As long as the rate of deposition is greater than the rate of erosion, the delta will continue to accumulate material and further its development. (Deposition)

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Base your answers to questions 13 and 14 on the map, which shows watershed regions of New York State.

N

13. On which type of landscape region are both the Susquehanna-Chesapeake and the Delaware watersheds located? (1) (2) (3) (4)

plain plateau mountain lowland

Correct Answer: (2) According to the Earth Science Reference Tables, Generalized Landscape Regions of New York State, the Susquehanna-Chesapeake watershed is located on the Allegheny Plateau. (Landscapes)

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14. In which watershed is the Genesee River located? (1) (2) (3) (4)

Ontario-St. Lawrence Susquehanna-Chesapeake Mohawk-Hudson Delaware

Correct Answer: (1) According to the Earth Science Reference Tables, Generalized Bedrock Geology of New York State, the Genesee River runs through Rochester and is approximately along the 78° west longitude line. On the diagram, the watershed that fits this best is the Ontario-St. Lawrence. (Landscapes) 15. New York State landscape regions are identified and classified primarily by their (1) (2) (3) (4)

surface topography and bedrock structure. existing vegetation and type of weather. latitude and longitude. chemical weathering rate and nearness to large bodies of water.

Correct Answer: (1) Topography refers to the surface features of an area. If you look at the Earth Science Reference Tables, you will notice titles such as “mountains, plateaus, and lowlands.” The New York State landscape regions are based upon the surface features and the type of bedrock that make up the features (which can bee seen on page 3). (Landscapes) 16. The cross section below shows rock layers that underwent crustal movement during an igneous intrusion in the Cretaceous Period.

Ridges

Igneous intrusion Which statement best describes the cause of the ridges shown? (1) (2) (3) (4)

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The rock layers were evenly weathered. Some rock layers were more resistant to weathering and erosion. The igneous intrusion flowed over the surface. More deposition occurred at the ridge sites after uplift.

Surface Processes and Landscapes Correct Answer: (2) Resistant rocks exhibit a slow rate of weathering due to their abundance in resistant (hard) minerals. Such rocks tend to comprise the highest portions of a landscape, and less resistant rock types underlie the lowest portions. (Weathering) 17. Outwash plains are formed as a result of deposition by (1) (2) (3) (4)

landslides. ocean waves. winds from hurricanes. meltwater from glaciers.

Correct Answer: (4) An outwash plain is made up of sediment that is layered and well sorted. This indicates the sediment was deposited by a stream. Because a stream is not a choice, you can infer that meltwater from a glacier acts as a stream to sort sediment. An outwash plain is a typical glacial landform feature of which you should be aware. (Glaciers) 18. The diagram shows a sedimentary rock sample.

(Shown actual size) Which agent of erosion was most likely responsible for shaping the particles forming this rock? (1) (2) (3) (4)

mass movement wind glacial ice running water

Correct Answer: (4) The particles that compose the rock sample appear to be well rounded and smooth, characteristic of those that have been abraded by running water. In contrast, those abraded by ice would appear scratched, and particles abraded by wind would be pitted. Particles eroded and abraded by mass movement would appear jagged. (Erosion)

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19. The picture here shows a geological feature in the Kalahari Desert of southwestern Africa.

Which process most likely produced the present appearance of this feature? (1) (2) (3) (4)

wind erosion volcanic eruption earthquake vibrations plate tectonics

Correct Answer: (1) Wind can pick up only small sediments no higher than a few feet off the ground. Therefore, only the lower portions of a rock formation will be affected by wind abrasion. (Erosion)

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20. The cross section here shows layers of soil.

Dark brown to black soil with a high organic content Tan to orange soil with a high clay content, some rock fragments Light gray to black soil, coarse rock fragments Which two processes produced the layer of dark brown to black soil? (1) (2) (3) (4)

melting and solidification of magma erosion and uplifting weathering and biologic activity compaction and cementation

Correct Answer: (3) Weathering breaks up bedrock into smaller sediments. Broken up bedrock, however, isn’t enough. Soil requires the decomposition of organic matter to provide nutrients for plants to use. The organic matter you see in the image is provided by organisms known as decomposers (biologic activity). (Soil)

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21. A stream with a velocity of 100 centimeters per second flows into a lake. Which sediment-size particles would the stream most likely deposit first as it enters the lake? (1) (2) (3) (4)

boulders cobbles pebbles sand

Correct Answer: (3) When a stream enters a larger body of water, it slows down, causing the largest and heaviest particles to be deposited first. Using the Earth Science Reference Tables, Relationship of Transported Particles Size to Water Velocity, find the speed of the river (100 cm/s) along the x-axis. Trace a line upward above this speed, intersecting particles of pebble size. This is the largest diameter of particle a stream flowing at this velocity can carry. Consequently, it will be deposited first. (Deposition) 22. When the velocity of a stream suddenly decreases, the sediment being transported undergoes an increase in (1) (2) (3) (4)

particle density. erosion. deposition. mass movement.

Correct Answer: (3) A decrease in the velocity of an erosional agent (running water, wind, ice) decreases its ability to carry sediments. As the stream slows down, it deposits the largest particles first. This can be seen on the Earth Science Reference Tables, Relationships of Transported Particle Size to Water Velocity. (Deposition) 23. What is the minimum water velocity needed in a stream to maintain the transportation of the smallest boulder? (1) (2) (3) (4)

100 cm/sec 200 cm/sec 300 cm/sec 500 cm/sec

Correct Answer: (3) On the Earth Science Reference Tables, locate the Relationship of Transported Particle Size to Water Velocity chart. If you hold a straight edge vertically, you will see that the curve passes into the boulder row at 300 cm/sec. (Erosion)

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Surface Processes and Landscapes

24. This list shows characteristics that vary from place to place on Earth. a. b. c. d. e. f.

radioactive substances bedrock structures duration of insolation hillslopes stream patterns atmospheric composition

Observations and measurements of which three characteristics would be most useful in describing landscapes? (1) (2) (3) (4)

a, b, and c b, c, and f b, d, and e d, e, and f

Correct Answer: (3) The characteristics of the bedrock that underlies a region dictates the manner in which it weathers and, thus, the resulting topography (shape) of the landscape. Likewise, the topography of the landscape dictates the manner in which water flows over its surface. (Landscapes) 25. A stream flowing at a velocity of 75 centimeters per second can transport (1) (2) (3) (4)

clay, only. pebbles, only. pebbles, sand, silt, and clay, only. boulders, cobbles, pebbles, sand, silt, and clay.

Correct Answer: (3) Using the Earth Science Reference Tables, locate the Relationship of Transported Particle Size to Water Velocity chart. Next locate 75 cm/sec on the x-axis. Now, using a straightedge, move up until you hit the curve. You will notice that 75 cm/sec intersects the curve in the pebbles region. This means that at 75 cm/sec, water is fast enough to transport medium sized pebbles. If the water is able to transport certain pebbles, then it would be able to transport any particle that is smaller than a pebble (sand, silt, and clay). (Erosion)

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26. Which event is the best example of erosion? (1) (2) (3) (4)

breaking apart of shale as a result of water freezing in a crack dissolving of rock particles on a limestone gravestone by acid rain rolling of a pebble along the bottom of a stream crumbling of bedrock in one area to form soil

Correct Answer: (3) Erosion is the process by which sediments are transported. Choices 1, 2, and 4 all describe the process of weathering in which sediments are broken down either chemically or physically. (Erosion) 27. The satellite photograph shows a geologic feature composed of silt, sand, and clay.

The geologic feature shown in the photograph was primarily deposited by which agent of erosion? (1) (2) (3) (4)

glaciers wind wave action running water

Correct Answer: (4) The photograph is one of a delta formed at the mouth of a river as it empties into a larger, calm body of water. The dramatic reduction in flow velocity of the river upon reaching its mouth initiates the deposition of sediment in a horizontal manner. Over time, the layers of deposited sediment accumulate to form a delta. (Erosion)

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28. The cross section here shows a soil profile. This soil was formed primarily by (1) (2) (3) (4)

erosion by glaciers. erosion by running water. capillarity and human activity. weathering and biological activity.

Bedrock Correct Answer: (4) You can immediately rule out the first two choices, because erosion is a process that moves material away. The bedrock has been broken up; this happens as a result of weathering. Further, the plants growing on top of the soil give evidence that this area is being affected by biological activity. (Soil)

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29. Which block diagram best represents a portion of a plateau?

(1)

(3)

(2)

(4)

Correct Answer: (1) Plateaus are always underlain by horizontal bedrock. The plateau no longer appears flat due to weathering and erosional forces. The Catskills are considered to be a dissected portion of the Allegheny Plateau. (Landscapes)

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30. The diagram shows a meandering stream flowing across nearly flat topography and over loose sediments.

Sand bar If arrow length represents stream velocity, which diagram best shows the relative stream velocities in this section of the stream?

Sand bar

(1)

(3)

Sand bar

(2)

Sand bar

Sand bar

(4)

Correct Answer: (2) Stream velocity is always the greatest along the outer edge of a meander, resulting in a high rate of erosion of the stream bank. Stream velocity is therefore least along the meander’s inner edge, resulting in a high rate of deposition and point bar formation. (Erosion and Deposition)

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Open-Ended Questions Base your answers to question 38 on the cross section. The cross section represents a part of Texas where weakly cemented sandstone is exposed at the surface. The mineral cement holding the sandstone grains together is calcite. Area X is a circular depression of loose sand that has been partially removed by prevailing winds. Sand dunes have developed downwind from depression X.

Present Day, Dry Climate Prevailing wind

Area of sand dune development

Depression X: Loose sand (mixture of grain size)

Sandstone

31. On the diagram of the area of sand dune development provided, draw a sketch showing the general sideview of a sand dune formed by a wind blowing in the direction indicated. Your sketch should clearly show any variations in the slope of the sides of the dune.

Prevailing wind

Ground surface Correct Answer: The diagram should be drawn to illustrate that erosion is occurring on the side of the dune facing the wind, thereby producing a gently-sloping surface. The eroded sediments are deposited on the opposite side of the dune to produce a steeper slope. (Erosion)

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Prevailing wind

Ground surface Base your answers to questions 32 and 33 on the following map, which shows the different lobes (sections) of the Laurentide Ice Sheet, the last continental ice sheet that covered most of New York State. The arrows show the direction that the ice lobes flowed. The terminal moraine shows the maximum advance of this ice sheet.

St. Lawrence Lobe Black River Lobe

Tu g Hi

ll U

Moh awk Lobe

Lo Te rm

in al M orain e

Hu ds on -C

ha m

pla

in

e

Lob

Erie

p O la n d ne Lo ida be

be

Ontario Lobe

Adirondack Lobe

Narragansett Lobe Connecticut Lobe

N

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32. Describe the arrangement of rock material in the sediments that were directly deposited by the glacier. Correct Answer: Unsorted or mixed sizes Unlike with water erosion, glacier erosion deposits materials in an unsorted manner like giant bulldozers. (Glaciers) 33. What evidence might be found on surface bedrock of the Catskills that would indicate the direction of ice flow in this region? Correct Answer: Parallel scratches, grooves, or striations Glaciers tend to scratch up the underlying rocks as they push large amounts of materials over them. By observing the orientation of the scratches, one can infer the direction that the ice moved. (Glaciers) Base your answers to question 41 on the geologic cross section. The rock layers have not been overturned. Point A is located in the zone of contact metamorphism.

A I

II I I I I I I I I I I I I II I I I

I

I

II

I

III II

I I I I I

I

I

I

I

I

I

I

I

I

I I II II I I I I I III II

II

I

II II

I

I

II II II I

II

Key Siltstone

Shale

Limestone

Basalt intrusion

Sandstone

Breccia Contact metamorphism

I

I

I

II II

Conglomerate

34. What is the largest silt particle that could be found in the siltstone layer? Correct Answer: 0.006 cm Turn to the Earth Science Reference Tables and find the chart Relationship of Transported Particle Size to Water Velocity. Note that silt is anywhere between 0.0004 cm and 0.006 cm. (Weathering)

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Surface Processes and Landscapes Base your answers to questions 42 through 46 on the map that follows, which shows a meandering stream as it enters a lake. Points A through D represent locations in the stream.

A Lake

D

B

C

35. In the box provided, draw a cross-sectional view of the general shape of the stream bottom between points A and B. The water surface line has already been drawn.

A

Water surface

B

Correct Answer: In the image, the A side is on the outside of the turn, and the B side is on the inside. The outside (A side) will experience erosion due to an increase in water velocity while the inside (B side) will experience deposition due to a decrease in water velocity. Erosion makes the channel deeper while deposition makes the channel shallower. See the image that follows. (Erosion)

A

Water surface

B

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36. State the relationship between stream velocity and the size of the sediment the stream can carry. Correct Answer: Faster water has more carrying power; therefore, as water velocity increases, the size of the sediment the stream can carry increases. (Erosion) 37. Describe how the size and shape of most pebbles change when the pebbles are transported in a stream over a great distance. Correct Answer: The pebbles will become round and smooth. As the pebbles travel in the stream, abrasion with other rocks will chip the corners off. (Erosion) 38. The stream velocity at point C is 100 centimeters per second, and the stream velocity at point D is 40 centimeters per second. Identify one sediment particle most likely being deposited between points C and D. Correct Answer: Pebble or Sand Turn to the Earth Science Reference Tables. Find the Relationship of Transported Particle Size to Water Velocity chart. With a straight edge, move between 40 and 100 on the x-axis. You will find that the curve is within pebble and sand range. (Erosion)

Settling Rate

39. Deposition is affected by particle density. On the grid provided, draw a line to show the relationship between particle density and settling rate.

Particle Density Correct Answer: There is a direct relationship between particle density and deposition rate. As density increases, the deposition rate will also increase. The graph should look like the image that follows. (Deposition)

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Settling Rate

Surface Processes and Landscapes

Particle Density Base your answers to questions 40 and 41 on the photograph, which shows a mountainous region cut by a large valley in its center.

40. What characteristic of this large valley supports the inference that glacial ice formed the valley? Correct Answer: The valley is U-shaped, suggesting that it formed due to the removal of rock from its walls and floor as a result of glacial activity. (Glaciers)

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41. Describe additional geologic evidence that might be found on the valley floor that would support the idea that glacial ice formed this valley. Correct Answer: The valley floor would be expected to be heavily striated or scratched due to the grinding of rock incorporated into the glacier’s base against the underlying bedrock of the valley floor. (Glaciers) Base your answers to question 42 on the cross sections that follow, which show widely separated outcrops at locations W, X, Y, and Z. The rock layers have not been overturned. Line AB in the cross section at location W represents an unconformity. Fossils are shown in some of the layers.

Location W Key Igneous intrusion

Location X Location Y Location Z

Contact metamorphism

Sedimentary rock types

Fossil types A

B (Not drawn to scale)

42. Identify two of the processes involved in the formation of the unconformity represented by line AB in the cross section at location W. Correct Answer: Unconformities (usually represented by wavy lines) are layers that have been partially or fully removed and are, therefore, missing. The processes associated with removing sediments from a rock layer apply. Any of the following answers will do: ■ ■ ■ ■ ■ ■

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uplift weathering erosion submergence deposition burial (Weathering and Erosion)

Geologic History Multiple-Choice Questions For each statement or question, choose the number of the word or expression that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. There is evidence that an asteroid or a comet crashed into the Gulf of Mexico at the end of the Mesozoic Era. Consequences of this impact event may explain the (1) (2) (3) (4)

extinction of many kinds of marine animals, including trilobites. extinction of ammonoids and dinosaurs. appearance of the earliest birds and mammals. appearance of great coal-forming forests and insects.

Correct Answer: (2) According to the Earth Science Reference Tables, Geologic History of New York State, two significant events for Life on Earth during the conclusion of the Mesozoic Era are the extinction of the dinosaurs and ammonoids. This could have occurred from a catastrophic event such as an asteroid or comet impact. (Geologic History of NYS) 2. Which group of organisms, some of which were preserved as fossils in early Paleozoic rocks, are still in existence today? (1) (2) (3) (4)

brachiopods eurypterids graptolites trilobites

Correct Answer: (1) According to the Earth Science Reference Tables, Geologic History of New York State–Time Distribution of Fossils, the black bar indicates the expanse of geologic time over which a species existed. The bar representing brachiopods extends to the present day, indicating that this group is still in existence. (Fossil Evidence)

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3. Fossil pollen has been recovered from sediments deposited in late-Pleistocene lakes. The pollen’s geologic age can most accurately be measured by using (1) (2) (3) (4)

rubidium-87. potassium-40. oxygen-18. carbon-14.

Correct Answer: (4) The short half-life of carbon-14 (5,700 years) limits its use to samples no older than 50,000 years, after which too little of the radioisotope remains to provide an accurate date. Late-Pleisteocene organic remains are ideal carbon dating, for they are no older than 10,000 years. (Geologic History of NYS) 4. Fossils of trilobites, graptolites, and eurypterids are found in the same bedrock layer in New York State. During which geologic time interval could this bedrock layer have formed? (1) (2) (3) (4)

late Ordovician to early Devonian late Silurian to early Cretaceous early Permian to late Jurassic early Cambrian to middle Ordovician

Correct Answer: (1) Using the Earth Science Reference Tables, locate the timeline for all three organisms. This is found on the Geologic History of New York State. You will see that all three timelines are present from the late Ordovician period to the early Devonian period. (Fossil Evidence) 5. Which two New York State landscape regions are formed mostly of surface bedrock that is approximately the same geologic age? (1) (2) (3) (4)

Manhattan Prong and Atlantic Coastal Plain Erie-Ontario Lowlands and Adirondack Mountains Adirondack Mountains and Allegheny Plateau Tug Hill Plateau and St. Lawrence Lowlands

Correct Answer: (4) According to the Earth Science Reference Tables, Generalized Landscape Regions of NYS, Generalized Bedrock Geology of NYS, both the bedrock of the Tug Hill Plateau and the St. Lawrence Lowlands were formed during the Ordovician period. (Geologic History of NYS)

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Geologic History

6. The photograph shows an escarpment (cliff) located in the western United States. The directions for north and south are indicated by arrows. A fault in the sedimentary rocks is shown on the front of the escarpment. North

South

The photograph shows that the fault most likely formed (1) (2) (3) (4)

after the rock layers were deposited, when the north side moved downward. after the rock layers were deposited, when the north side moved upward. before the rock layers were deposited, when the south side moved downward. before the rock layers were deposited, when the south side moved upward.

Correct Answer: (1) A good general rule is that the rock has to be there first, before something can happen to it. Because all the various rock layers have a fault line running through them, they were deposited before the fault occurred. Matching up the layers between the north and south sides, you can see the north side is lower than the south. Therefore, the north side must have moved downward. (Relative Dating) 7. Scientists have inferred that Earth’s original atmosphere was formed by the (1) (2) (3) (4)

outgassing from Earth’s interior. erosion of Earth’s surface. decay of microorganisms in Earth’s oceans. radioactive decay of elements in Earth’s core.

Correct Answer: (1) Outgassing refers to the slow release of gas from Earth’s early volcanoes. About 4.4 billion years ago, it is believed that the Earth’s surface cooled to form a crust that was heavily populated by volcanoes. Outgassing from the primitive volcanoes released steam, CO2, and ammonia, which created the early atmosphere. (Origin of the Solar System)

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8. Which graph shows the relative duration of geologic time for the Precambrian, Paleozoic, Mesozoic, and Cenozoic time intervals? Mesozoic Cenozoic Paleozoic

Paleozoic Mesozoic

Cenozoic

Mesozoic Cenozoic

Paleozoic

Cenozoic

Precambrian

Precambrian Paleozoic Precambrian

Precambrian Mesozoic

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Correct Answer: (2) According to the Earth Science Reference Tables, Geologic History of New York State–Timeline, the Precambrian Eon lasted approximately 4.1 billion years (89% of Earth’s total history). The Paleozoic Era lasted approximately 293 million years (5% of Earth’s total history). The Mesozoic Era lasted approximately 186 million years (4% of Earth’s total history). Finally, the Cenozoic Era lasted approximately 65 million years (2% of Earth’s total history). (Geologic Time Scales) 9. According to plate tectonic theory, during which geologic time interval did the continents of North America and Africa separate, resulting in the initial opening of the Atlantic Ocean? (1) (2) (3) (4)

Mesozoic Era Paleozoic Era Proterozoic Eon Archean Eon

Correct Answer: (1) According to the Earth Science Reference Tables, Geologic History of New York State–Important Geologic Events, North America and Africa first separated to form the initial opening of the Atlantic Ocean during the Jurassic period of the Mesozoic Era. (Geologic History of NYS)

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10. Which mountain range resulted from the collision of North America and Africa, as parts of Pangea joined together in the late Pennsylvanian Period? (1) (2) (3) (4)

Appalachian Mountains Acadian Mountains Taconic Mountains Grenville Mountains

Correct Answer: (1) Using the Earth Science Reference Tables, Geologic History of NYS, locate the Pennsylvanian Period, under the correct column. Trace this period to the right, to the column entitled Important Geologic Events in New York. Listed there is the formation of the Appalachian Mountains via the collision of North America and Africa. (Geologic History of NYS) 11. Bedrock outcrops A and B are located at two different locations along the Genesee River in western New York State. Rock layers 1, 2, and 4 are the same in both outcrops.

4 3

4

2

2

1

1

Outcrop A

Outcrop B

Which statement best explains why rock layer 3 is missing from outcrop B? (1) (2) (3) (4)

A fault exists between outcrops A and B. Erosion created an unconformity between rock layers 2 and 4 in outcrop B. A volcanic eruption destroyed rock layer 3 in outcrop B. Metamorphism of outcrop A created rock layer 3.

Correct Answer: (2) Rock layer 3 was removed from outcrop B due to the processes of weathering and erosion. This was followed by the deposition of layer 4 to form a buried erosional surface or unconformity. (Relative Dating)

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12. The block diagram of a portion of Earth’s crust shows four zones labeled A, B, C, and D outlined with dashed lines.

A

B

C

D

Key Rock Units Igneous rock Sedimentary rocks

Contact metamorphism

In which zone is a younger rock unit on top of an older rock unit? (1) (2) (3) (4)

A B C D

Correct Answer: (1) In section A, the units are undisturbed and, therefore, the younger units are on top and the older units are on the bottom. In sections B, C, and D, the units have been disturbed by folding, faulting, and contact metamorphism respectively. The disturbances have caused older rock units to be placed above younger ones. (Relative Dating)

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Geologic History Base your answers to questions 13 through 15 on the reading passage and the drawing that follows and on your knowledge of Earth science.

Fossil with Signs of Feathers Is Cited as Bird-Dinosaur Link

(5)

(10)

(15)

Paleontologists have discovered in China a fossil dinosaur with what are reported to be clear traces of feathers from head to tail, the most persuasive evidence so far, scientists say, that feathers predated the origin of birds and that modern birds are descendants of dinosaurs. Entombed in fine-grained rock, the unusually well-preserved skeleton resembles that of a duck with a reptilian tail, altogether about three feet in length. Its head and tail are edged with the imprint of downy fibers. The rest of the body, except for bare lower legs, shows distinct traces of tufts and filaments that appear to have been primitive feathers. On the backs of its short forelimbs are patterns of what look like modern bird feathers. Other dinosaur remains with what appear to be featherlike traces have been unearthed in recent years, but nothing as complete as this specimen, paleontologists said. Etched in the rock like a filigree decoration surrounding the skeleton are imprints of where the down and feathers appear to have been. The 130-million-year-old fossils were found a year ago by farmers in Liaoning Province in northeastern China. After an analysis by Chinese and American researchers, the fossil animal was identified as a dromaeosaur, a small fast-running dinosaur related to velociraptor. The dinosaurs belonged to a group of two-legged predators known as advanced theropods . . . —excerpted from “Fossil with Signs of Feathers Is Cited as Bird-Dinosaur Link,” John Noble Wilford, New York Times, April 26, 2001

The drawing shows an artist’s view of the dinosaur, based on the fossilized remains.

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13. During which period of geologic time have paleontologists inferred that the feathered dinosaur mentioned in the passage existed? (1) (2) (3) (4)

Cambrian Cretaceous Paleogene Permian

Correct Answer: (2) The fossil is dated as being 130 million years old. Using the Earth Science Reference Tables, Geologic History of NYS, locate 130 million years ago in the margin between the Epoch and Life on Earth columns. This places the fossil in the early Cretaceous period. (Fossil Evidence) 14. This feathered dinosaur is not considered an index fossil because it (1) (2) (3) (4)

existed too long ago. was preserved in ash. was a land-dwelling animal. was found in only one area.

Correct Answer: (4) An index fossil to used for the purposes of relative dating. For a fossil to be considered as an index fossil, it must have lived over a short period of time and existed over a large geographic area. Because this fossil was found in only a single location, this violates the criterion for needing to have existing over a large geographic area. (Relative Dating) 15. The reference to the bird-dinosaur link is most likely referring to the concept of (1) (2) (3) (4)

plate tectonics. evolution. dynamic equilibrium. recycling.

Correct Answer: (2) One of the tenets in the theory of evolution is that there are links between species that have once existed and species that exist today. The article uses the term bird-dinosaur link, implying that there is some genetic link between birds and dinosaurs, revealing that they have some common ancestry. (Fossil Evidence) 16. Near which location in New York State would a geologist have the greatest chance of finding dinosaur footprints in the surface bedrock? (1) (2) (3) (4)

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41° 10' N latitude, 74° W longitude 42° 10' N latitude, 74° 30' W longitude 43° 30' N latitude, 76° W longitude 44° 30' N latitude, 75° 30' W longitude

Geologic History Correct Answer: (1) According to the Earth Science Reference Tables, Geologic History of New York State–Life on Earth, dinosaurs lived during the Triassic to Cretaceous Periods. Referring to the Generalized Bedrock Geology of New York State map, the only region of New York State that is underlain with bedrock of the appropriate age would be found at 41° 10' N latitude, 74° W longitude. (Geologic History of NYS) 17. The shore of which New York State body of water has large amounts of metamorphic bedrock exposed at the surface? (1) (2) (3) (4)

western shore of Lake Champlain eastern shore of Lake Erie southern shore of Long Island Sound southern shore of Lake Ontario

Correct Answer: (1) According to the Earth Science Reference Tables, Generalized Bedrock Geology of New York State, the western shore of lake Champlain is Middle Proterozoic gneisses, quartzites, marbles, and anorthositic rocks. These rocks are all intensely metamorphosed from regional metamorphism about 1,000 m.y.a. (Geologic History of NYS) 18. Which statement best explains why no Permian age bedrock is found in New York State? (1) (2) (3) (4)

The extinction of many life-forms occurred at the end of the Permian Period. Only rocks of igneous origin formed in New York State during the Permian Period. Permian-age rocks have been metamorphosed and cannot be identified. Permian-age rocks were either eroded away or never formed in New York State.

Correct Answer: (4) Turn to the Earth Science Reference Tables, Generalized Bedrock Geology of New York State, and look at the key. You will not find a symbol for Permian age rock. There is a gap in the NYS rock record during the Permian age. Since humans were not around to record the event, we can only assume that the rock was never deposited, or that deposited rock has been eroded away. (Geologic History of NYS)

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Number of C14 Atoms

C14

Time (years) (1)

C14

Time (years) (2)

Number of C14 Atoms

Number of C14 Atoms

Number of C14 Atoms

19. Which graph best shows the radioactive decay of carbon-14?

C14

Time (years) (3)

C14

Time (years) (4)

Correct Answer: (4) During the radioactive decay process, the number of C14 atoms decreases. The only graph that shows this type of trend is choice 4. Both choices 1 and 2 indicate that the number of C14 atoms would increase as a function of time, and choice 3 shows no change at all. (Absolute Dating) 20. A fossil shell contains 25% of the original amount of its carbon-14. Approximately how many years ago was this shell part of a living organism? (1) (2) (3) (4)

5,700 years ago 11,400 years ago 17,100 years ago 22,800 years ago

Correct Answer: (2) 25% means that the fossil has undergone two half-lives. After one half-life, there is one half (50%) of the carbon-14 remaining in the fossil. After two half-lives there is a half of a half (25%) of the carbon-14 remaining in the fossil. When determining a fossil’s age, you may use the formula: (Half-life of the element) × (# of half-lives the sample has undergone) = the age The cover of the reference tables states that the half life of carbon -14 is 5,700 years. So you would set up the math accordingly; (5,700 years) × (2 half lives) = 11,400 years. (Absolute Dating)

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Geologic History

21. Approximately what percentage of the estimated age of Earth does the Cenozoic Era represent? (1) (2) (3) (4)

1.4% 5.0% 11.9% 65.0%

Correct Answer: (1) According to the Earth Science Reference Tables, Geologic History of New York State, the Cenozoic Era began 65 million years ago. If the Earth formed 4,600 million years ago, you can calculate what percent 65 million years is of 4,600 million years. (Geologic History) (65/4600) × 100 = 1.41% Base your answers to questions 22 and 23 on the newspaper article shown here and on your knowledge of Earth science.

Fossilized Jellyfish Found in Wisconsin

(5)

(10)

Fossil hunters have unearthed the largest collection of fossilized jellyfish ever discovered, including the largest fossilized jellyfish ever found. The remains of soft-bodied animals such as jellyfish are relatively rare because they don’t have bones, fossil dealer Dan Damrow, James W. Hagadorn of the California Institute of Technology and Robert H. Dott Jr. of the University of Wisconsin at Madison noted in describing the find in the journal Geology. About a half-billion years ago, during the Cambrian period, the quarry in Mosinee, Wis., where the deposits were found was a small lagoon. The jellyfish apparently died when they were washed up by a freak tide or storm, the researchers said. The jellyfish remains were probably preserved because of a lack of erosion from sea water and wind, and a lack of scavengers, the researchers concluded. “It is very rare to discover a deposit which contains an entire stranding event of jellyfish,” Hagadorn said. “These jellyfish are not just large for the Cambrian, but are the largest jellyfish in the entire fossil record.” Washington Post, January 2002

22. These fossilized jellyfish were most likely discovered in which type of rock? (1) (2) (3) (4)

sandstone granite pumice slate

Correct Answer: (1) Because the jellyfish do not have bones, the type of fossil evidence would most likely be an imprint left in sediments that became sedimentary rocks. Igneous rocks form from molten magma; therefore, granite and pumice are not very good choices. Slate is a metamorphic rock that results from low-grade metamorphism of shale. During the metamorphism process, any fossil imprints of soft tissue would be destroyed. The only sedimentary rock listed is sandstone. (Fossil Evidence)

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23. Which two marine organisms most likely lived at the same time as these jellyfish? (1) (2) (3) (4)

crinoids and dinosaurs ammonoids and placoderm fish brachiopods and gastropods amphibians and eurypterids

Correct Answer: (3) According to the Earth Science Reference Tables, Geologic History of New York State, a half a billion years ago (500 million years ago) brachiopods and gastropods both existed. Crinoids came into existence a little less than 490 million years ago, but dinosaurs came into existence much later. Ammonoids and Placoderm Fish both came into existence around 400 million years ago, 100 million years too late to be part of the same deposit. (Fossil Evidence) 24. Fossilized footprints of Coelophysis dinosaurs have been found in bedrock closest to which New York State location? (1) (2) (3) (4)

New York City Old Forge Watertown Niagara Falls

Correct Answer: (1) According to the Earth Science Reference Tables, Geologic History of New York State–Time Distribution of Fossils, Ceolophysis existed during the late Triassic Period. According to the Earth Science Reference Tables, Generalized Bedrock Geology of New York State, bedrock of Triassic age is found near New York City. (Geologic History of NYS)

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Geologic History Base your answers to question 25 on the map, which shows watershed regions of New York State.

N

25. Most of the surface bedrock of the Ontario-St. Lawrence watershed was formed during which geologic time periods? (1) (2) (3) (4)

Precambrian and Cambrian Ordovician, Silurian, and Devonian Mississippian, Pennsylvanian, and Permian Triassic, Jurassic, and Cretaceous

Correct Answer: (2) According to the Earth Science Reference Tables, Generalized Bedrock Geology of New York State, the Ontario-St. Lawrence watershed (you must compare the maps) is composed primarily of Silurian, Ordovician, and Devonian age Limestone. (Geologic History NYS)

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26. Uranium-238 that crystallized at the same time Earth formed has undergone approximately how many half-lives of radioactive decay? (1) (2) (3) (4)

one half-life two half-lives three half-lives four half-lives

Correct Answer: (1) According to the Earth Science Reference Tables, Radioactive Decay Data, Uranium238 has a half life of 4.5 × 109 years. According to the Geologic History of New York State–Timeline, the age of the Earth is approximately 4.5 × 109 years old. Therefore, U-238 that crystallized at the same time the Earth formed would have undergone one half-life. (Absolute Dating)

Open-Ended Questions Base your answers to questions 27 through 30 on the geologic cross section below and on your knowledge of Earth science. The cross section shows New York State index fossils in rock layers that have not been overturned. Rock unit A is an igneous intrusion, and line XY represents an unconformity.

l

lll

lll

lll

ll

lll ll

lll

l

X

l

lll

lll

lll

lll

lll ll

lll lll

l

lll

lll

lll

lll

lll ll lll

l

Key Index Fossils

lll ll

ll

A

Key Rock Units

Bothriolepis Ctenocrinus

Sedimentary rocks

Dicellograptus Valcouroceras Elliptocephala

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Igneous rock Contact

l l l l l l l l l metamorphic rock

Y

Geologic History

27. Based on fossil evidence, determine the geologic period during which the unconformity formed. Correct Answer: Late Devonian The unconformity (the wavy line between X and Y) formed between the Ctenocrinus and the Bothriolepis. On the Earth Science Reference Tables, Geologic History of New York State, Ctenocrinus is labeled “I” and appears in the early Devonian, and Bothriolepis is labeled “R” and appears in the late Devonian. (Relative Dating) 28. Identify the coral index fossil that would most likely be found in the same layer as the index fossil Ctenocrinus. Correct Answer: Pleuridictyum Pleuridictyum is labeled V on the Earth Science Reference Tables. You can find the label “V” on the coral time line in the Devonian period. (Absolute Dating) 29. Each index fossil existed for a relatively short geologic time interval. State one other characteristic that each fossil must have to be considered an index fossil. Correct Answer: Short-lived/widespread Index fossils must be: 1. short-lived in order to narrow down the geologic period in which they lived; and 2. widespread geographically so they will be in abundance. Either answer will do. (Fossil Evidence) 30. Identify one piece of evidence shown in this cross section that indicates that the igneous intrusion, A, is older than the sandstone layer. Correct Answer: No contact metamorphism in sandstone Contact metamorphism can occur only in a rock layer that is present. It can’t occur in a rock layer that wasn’t there. There is contact metamorphism in every layer except for the sandstone. This means that the sandstone wasn’t present at the time of the intrusion. (Relative Dating) Base your answers to questions 31 through 33 on the table of index fossils shown here and on your knowledge of Earth science.

Table of Index Fossils

Eospirifer

Manticoceras

Phacops

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31. During what geologic time period did the oldest index fossil shown in this table exist? Correct Answer: Silurian Locate each fossil on the Earth Science Reference Tables. You will see that they are labeled Y, G, and C, respectively. Under the category “Time Distribution of Fossils,” you will see that Eospirifer (Y) is the oldest of the three fossils and it lived during the Silurian period. (Fossil Evidence) 32. State one characteristic of a good index fossil. Correct Answer: Index fossils should be short-lived (geologically) and widespread (geographically)— short-lived so that you can correctly identify the period from which it came and widespread so that you can find it in a variety of locations. (Fossil Evidence) 33. Complete the classification table by filling in the general fossil group name for each index fossil.

Fossil Classification Index Fossil

Eospirifer

Manticoceras

Phacops

General Fossil Group

Correct Answer: Locate each fossil on the Earth Science Reference Tables. You will see that they are labeled Y, G, and C, respectively. On the time lines in the category “Time Distribution of Fossils,” you will find the general fossil group names. (Fossil Evidence)

Fossil Classification Index Fossil

Eospirifer

Manticoceras

Phacops

General Fossil Group

Brachiopod

Ammonoid

Trilobite

Base your answers to questions 34 through 36 on the cross section shown, which shows several rock formations found in New York State. The rock layers have not been overturned.

156

Geologic History

Hammer Creek conglomerate Basalt flow Contact metamorphism Brunswick sandstone Palisade Sill (igneous intrusion) Lockatong siltstone formation containing Coelophysis footprints

Stockton sandstone

34. How does this cross section indicate that the Stockton sandstone is the oldest rock layer? Correct Answer: The Principle of Superposition states that the oldest rock formed first and, therefore, found on the bottom. Because the Stockton sandstone is found on the bottom, you can infer it is the oldest rock. (Relative Dating) 35. State one piece of evidence that supports the fact that the Palisade Sill is younger than the Brunswick sandstone. Correct Answer: An igneous intrusion is younger than the rock it intrudes. The Brunswick sandstone was there before the intrusion went through the center of it. (Relative Dating) 36. State one tectonic event affecting North America that occurred at the same time as the Palisade Sill intrusion. Correct Answer: Using the Earth Science Reference Tables, Geologic History of NYS, locate the column titled “Important Geologic Events in New York.” During the Triassic Period, you will notice the Intrusion of the Palisade sill. According to the Earth Science Reference Tables, around this time Pangea began to break up, and rifting of North America occurred. (Geologic History of NYS)

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37. Identify the geologic age and name of the surface metamorphic bedrock found at Mt. Marcy. Correct Answer: Anorthostic rock from the middle proterozoic The key at the bottom of the Earth Science Reference Tables, Generalized Bedrock Geology of New York State, shows that Mt. Marcy is made of anorthostic rock from the middle proterozoic. (Geologic History of NYS) Base your answers to question 38 on the information that follows, which describes the past and present climate of Antarctica, and on your knowledge of Earth science. Antarctica’s ice sheet has an average thickness of 6,600 feet and holds approximately 70% of Earth’s freshwater. Ice layers in Antarctica preserve information about Earth’s history. Fossil evidence found in the bedrock of this continent shows that Antarctica was once tropical and is a potential source of untapped natural resources. Antarctica is now a frozen desert with very little snowfall. 38. What evidence is preserved in Antarctica that provides information about Earth’s past climates? Correct Answer: Any of the following answers will be accepted. ■ ■ ■ ■ ■

fossils volcanic dust pollen trapped gases microbes (Relative Dating)

39. Some scientists believe an asteroid impact on Earth caused the extinction of the last of the dinosaurs. How many million years ago did this asteroid impact occur? Correct Answer: 65 mya On the Earth Science Reference Tables, you will find that the dinosaurs went extinct 65 million years ago. If the extinction of the dinosaurs was linked to the asteroid, the asteroid must have hit Earth at that time. (Absolute Dating)

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Geologic History Base your answers to questions 40 and 41 on the cross sections that follow, which show widely separated outcrops at locations W, X, Y, and Z. The rock layers have not been overturned. Line AB in the cross section at location W represents an unconformity. Fossils are shown in some of the layers.

Location W Key Igneous intrusion

Location X Location Y

Contact metamorphism

Sedimentary rock types

Location Z

Fossil types A

B (Not drawn to scale)

40. Determine the relative geologic age of the four fossils by correlating the rock layers between these outcrops. Number the fossils from 1 to 4 in order of relative age, with 1 as the oldest and 4 as the youngest.

Correct Answer:

2

1

4

3

159

CliffsTestPrep Regents Earth Science: The Physical Setting Workbook Look at the image that follows. You have to mentally rearrange the cross sections to line up the index fossils and other time markers (like the unconformity).

Location Z Location X

Location Y Location W

A

B

(Absolute Dating) 41. What evidence shown in the outcrop at location W suggests that the igneous intrusion occurred after the layers containing both fossils were deposited at location W? Correct Answer: Contact metamorphism If a layer shows contact metamorphism, it must have been present before the event that caused it. The igneous intrusion caused the contact metamorphism; therefore, both layers in location W must have been present before the igneous intrusion. (Relative Dating) Base your answers to questions 42 through 44 on the reading passage and on your knowledge of Earth science. The reading passage provides some background information about a recent fossil discovery. The map of Canada shows the fossil site. The scale drawing shows the new trilobite fossil compared to other trilobite fossils.

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Geologic History

The World’s Biggest Trilobite A team of Canadian paleontologists examining rock units along the shore of Hudson Bay in northern Manitoba has discovered the world’s largest recorded complete fossil of a trilobite, a many-legged, seadwelling animal inferred to have lived during the late Ordovician Period. The giant creature, measuring 70 centimeters in length, is a new species of the genus Isotelus. This remarkable discovery adds to our knowledge of the diversity of life following one of the greatest increases in the number and types of life-forms in history. The new Isotelus species existed just before the end of the Ordovician Period. Map of North America

Fossil site Fossil site

Scale drawings of the new trilobite Isotelus (A), other big species reported from elsewhere (B,C,D,E), and a typical large trilobite (F). A New Isotelus fossil

B C

D E

F

42. In what type of rock was the new Isotelus fossil most probably found? Correct Answer: The fossil was most likely found in sedimentary rock, for the great heat and/or pressure associated with igneous and metamorphic processes would likely destroy any remains. (Fossil Evidence) 43. At the time the new Isotelus fossil lived and died, during the Ordovician Period, what was the approximate latitude of the fossil site according to plate tectonic theory? Correct Answer: According to the Earth Science Reference Tables, Geologic History of New York StateInferred Position of Earth’s Landmasses, the likely latitude of the fossil site would have been the equator. (Absolute Dating) 44. What New York State nautiloid index fossil would most likely be found in the bedrock just below the new Isotelus fossil? Correct Answer: According to the Earth Science Reference Tables, Geologic History of New York State–Important Fossils of New York, the nautiloid Valcouriceras (fossil D) first appeared in the middle Ordivician period. This predates the arrival of the new Isotelus species in the late Ordivician period. (Relative Dating)

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CliffsTestPrep Regents Earth Science: The Physical Setting Workbook Base your answers to questions 45 and 46 on the geologic cross section that follows. Radioactive dating indicates that the granite intrusion is 279 million years old and the vesicular basalt is 260 million years old. The rock layers have not been overturned.

Sandstone Vesicular basalt

Shale Limestone Granite intrusion

Key Contact metamorphism

Siltstone

45. List the six rock units in the order from the oldest to the youngest. Correct Answer: According to the diagram, all layers within the geologic cross section are horizontal, suggesting that they have not been disturbed since their formation. In such a cross section, the law of superposition states that the age of rock layers increase with increasing depth. The law of cross-cutting says that the intrusion is younger than the layers it cuts across. Contact metamorphism also usually results. Thus, the age of the layers from youngest to oldest is (1) siltstone, (2) limestone, (3) granite intrusion (only cuts through siltstone and sandstone), (4) shale, (5) vesicular basalt (contact metamorphism is only with shale), and (6) sandstone. (Relative Dating) 46. During which geologic time period did the shale layer form? Correct Answer: Within the geologic cross section, the shale layer resides between the granitic intrusion (279 million years old) and the vesicular basalt (260 million years old). According to page 8 of the Earth Science Reference Tables, Geologic History of New York State–Timeline, the shale layer must have formed during the Permian Period, sometime between 279 and 260 million years ago. (Relative Dating)

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Meteorology Multiple-Choice Questions For each statement or question, choose the number of the word or expression that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Which form of electromagnetic radiation has a wavelength of 1.0 × 10–3 centimeter? (1) (2) (3) (4)

ultraviolet infrared radio waves microwaves

Correct Answer: (2) According to the Earth Science Reference Tables, Electromagnetic Spectrum, infrared waves have a wavelength of 1.0 × 10–3 (0.001) cm. (Energy Sources for Earth Systems) 2. Scientists are concerned about the decrease in ozone in the upper atmosphere primarily because ozone protects life on Earth by absorbing certain wavelengths of (1) (2) (3) (4)

X-ray radiation. ultraviolet radiation. infrared radiation. microwave radiation.

Correct Answer: (2) Ozone (O3) is a form of oxygen gas. It exits in the Earth’s upper atmosphere and is responsible for absorbing nearly all ultraviolet (UV) radiation incident upon the Earth. If too much UV radiation strikes Earth’s surface, it can have a deadly impact on certain life forms, and is directly linked to skin cancer. (Atmosphere) 3. If the base of a cloud is located at an altitude of 2 kilometers and the top of the cloud is located at an altitude of 8 kilometers, this cloud is located in the (1) (2) (3) (4)

troposphere, only. stratosphere, only. troposphere and stratosphere. stratosphere and mesosphere.

Correct Answer: (1) On the Earth Science Reference Tables, locate the Selected Properties of Earth’s Atmosphere chart. You will notice that the troposphere extends from sea level up to about 12 km. The cloud was between 2 and 8 km, well within the troposphere. In addition, if you slide over to the right you will notice that the troposphere is the only layer in the atmosphere that contains water vapor. (Atmosphere)

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4. Which map view best represents the pattern of isobar values, in millibars, and the pattern of wind flow, shown by arrows, at Earth’s surface surrounding a Northern Hemisphere low-pressure center?

L

L

992

992

996

996

1 00 0

1 00 0

(1)

(3)

L

L

1000

1000

996

996

992

992

(2)

(4)

Correct Answer: (1) Wind is due to a pressure gradient and will blow from high- to low-pressure regions. Therefore, a low-pressure center will have wind blowing inward toward the center. In the northern hemisphere, due to the Coriolis Effect caused by Earth’s rotation, the winds form a counterclockwise pattern. (Weather)

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5. On a day with no wind, the air temperature outside a house is 10°C. The air temperature inside the house is 18°C. Which diagram best represents the air circulation pattern that is most likely to occur when a window of the house is first opened?

Roof

10°C

18°C

Roof

10°C

18°C

Floor

Floor

(1)

(3)

Roof

10°C

18°C

Roof

10°C

18°C

Floor

(2)

Floor

(4)

Correct Answer: (4) Cold air is denser than warm air and immediately sinks to the floor pushing the less dense hot air up and out of the room. The bottom part of the circulation pattern represents the cold air, and the top part represents the warm air. (Weather) 6. Students wish to study the effect of elevation above sea level on air temperature and air pressure. They plan to hike in the Adirondack Mountains from Heart Lake, elevation 2,179 feet, to the peak of Mt. Marcy, elevation 5,344 feet. Which instruments should they use to collect their data? (1) (2) (3) (4)

anemometer and psychrometer anemometer and barometer thermometer and psychrometer thermometer and barometer

Correct Answer: (4) Thermometers measure temperature, and barometers provide a measure of air pressure. (Atmosphere)

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7. Which map best represents the surface wind pattern around a Northern Hemisphere high-pressure center?

H

H

(1)

(3)

H

H

(2)

(4)

Correct Answer: (3) In the Northern Hemisphere, winds move outward and clockwise around a highpressure center. Just the opposite, in the Northern Hemisphere winds move inward and counterclockwise around a low-pressure center. (Atmospheric Variables) 8. An observer measured the air temperature and the dew point and found the difference between them to be 12°C. One hour later, the difference between the air temperature and the dew point was found to be 4°C. Which statement best describes the changes that were occurring? (1) (2) (3) (4)

The relative humidity was decreasing, and the chance of precipitation was decreasing. The relative humidity was decreasing, and the chance of precipitation was increasing. The relative humidity was increasing, and the chance of precipitation was decreasing. The relative humidity was increasing, and the chance of precipitation was increasing.

Correct Answer: (4) When the air temperature approaches the dew point temperature, there is a higher probability of precipitation. The relative humidity can be calculated if the air temperature and the dew point temperatures are known. For example, according to the Earth Science Reference Tables, Relative Humidity, if the dry-bulb temperature is 24°C and the difference between the air (dry bulb) temperature and the wet-bulb temperature is 12, then the relative humidity is only 20%. There is not a very high probability of rain. This also corresponds to a low dew point temperature. However, if the air temperature is 24°C and the difference between the air temperature and the wet-bulb temperature is 4, then the relative humidity is 69%. The air temperature and dew point temperature are getting closer to each other. There is, therefore, a higher chance of precipitation. (Weather)

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Meteorology

9. The diagram shows four different chemical materials escaping from the interior of early Earth. Silicon dioxide (SiO2)

Water (H2O) Nitrogen (N2)

Carbon dioxide (CO2)

Early cooling, solidifying Earth

Which material contributed least to the early composition of the atmosphere? (1) (2) (3) (4)

SiO2 H 2O N2 CO2

Correct Answer: (1) According to the Earth Science Reference Tables, Properties of Common Minerals, SiO2 (quartz) is a common rock-forming mineral and component of the Earth’s crust. H2O, N2 and CO2 all likely escaped the Earth’s interior as gases that formed the basis of the early atmosphere. (Atmosphere) Base your answers to questions 10 through 12 on the diagram shown, which represents the planetary wind and moisture belts in Earth’s Northern hemisphere.

Tropopause DRY

Polar front WET

60° N

30° N

DRY

WET

0°

(Not drawn to scale)

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10. The climate at 90° north latitude is dry because the air at that location is usually (1) (2) (3) (4)

warm and rising. warm and sinking. cool and rising. cool and sinking.

Correct Answer: (4) The diagram used with this question is taken from the Earth Science Reference Tables. 90 degrees north latitude is the North Pole region, located at the top of the diagram. Notice here, the arrows indicating the direction of airflow point downward, toward the ground. This indicates that the air above is sinking downward toward the ground below. The air at this location is cool due to the higher latitudes receiving a lower angle of insolation. (Atmosphere) 11. The paths of the surface planetary winds are curved due to Earth’s (1) (2) (3) (4)

revolution. rotation. circumference. size.

Correct Answer: (2) Wind moves air from areas of high pressure toward areas of low pressure. Large scale movement of air masses (wind) is curved due to the Earth’s rotation. This curvature is referred to as the Coriolis Effect. It deflects wind to the right in the Northern hemisphere, and to the left in the Southern hemisphere. (Atmosphere) 12. The tropopause is approximately how far above sea level? (1) (2) (3) (4)

12 mi 12 km 60 mi 60 km

Correct Answer: (2) Turn to the Earth Science Reference Tables, Selected Properties of Earth’s Atmosphere. Notice there are two scales for altitude: one in kilometers and the other in miles. Each tic mark on the kilometer scale represents 10 km. Each tic mark on the miles scale represents 5 miles. The tropopause is at an altitude of approximately 12 km, or 7.5 miles. Because only the 12 km choice is available, that is the correct answer to choose. (Atmosphere)

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Meteorology

13. Compared to a maritime tropical air mass, a maritime polar air mass has a (1) (2) (3) (4)

higher temperature and more water vapor. higher temperature and less water vapor. lower temperature and more water vapor. lower temperature and less water vapor.

Correct Answer: (4) A maritime air mass is one that forms over water and therefore has a fairly large amount of water vapor. However, in the polar regions, the amount of evaporation taking place is far lower than in the tropical regions due to the difference in temperature and due to the amount of water trapped as ice in the polar regions. Also, the polar regions are very cold, and the tropical regions are much warmer. Therefore, a maritime polar air mass will be cooler and contain less water vapor than a maritime tropical air mass. (Air Masses) 14. Which weather change is most likely indicated by rapidly falling air pressure? (1) (2) (3) (4)

Humidity is decreasing. Temperature is decreasing. Skies are clearing. A storm is approaching.

Correct Answer: (4) Regions of low pressure are associated with rising air, leading to the possibility of cloud formation and stormy weather. (Weather) 15. Weather-station measurements indicate that the dew point temperature and air temperature are getting farther apart and that air pressure is rising. Which type of weather is most likely arriving at the station? (1) (2) (3) (4)

a snowstorm a warm front cool, dry air maritime tropical air

Correct Answer: (3) Air that is cool or cold will result in a rise in air pressure due to its high density. The low humidity of the air will cause the dew point temperature (indicative of the amount of water vapor in the air) to fall, resulting in a greater difference between the dew point and air temperatures. (Atmosphere)

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CliffsTestPrep Regents Earth Science: The Physical Setting Workbook Base your answers to questions 16 through 18 on the map, which shows sea-level air pressure, in millibars, for a portion of the eastern coast of North America. Points A, B, C, and D are sea-level locations on Earth’s surface.

Sea-Level Air Pressures 10

20

10

A

24

1028

North America

Atlantic Ocean 102

4

B

10

20

10 12

101

C 996

6

1000

04

10

8

0 10

D

16. Which weather instrument was used to measure the air pressures? (1) (2) (3) (4)

thermometer wind vane sling psychrometer barometer

Correct Answer: (4) A barometer measures air pressure. A thermometer is used to measure temperature. A wind vane measures wind direction, and a sling psychrometer is used to measure relative humidity. (Weather)

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Meteorology

17. Which location most likely recorded the highest wind speed? (1) (2) (3) (4)

A B C D

Correct Answer: (2) Wind is created by a pressure gradient as air is moved from regions of high pressure to regions of low air pressure. When the isobars are close together, the pressure gradient is higher, resulting in high winds. On the map, the isobars are closest at point B. (Weather) 18. The air pressure recorded at point D was most likely (1) (2) (3) (4)

1014 mb 1012 mb 1010 mb 1006 mb

Correct Answer: (3) On the map, location D is in between the 1008 mb and 1012 mb isobars. Therefore, the pressure must fall between these two extremes. Notice that the pressure at point D cannot be 1012 mb. If it was, the isoline would pass through that point. (Weather)

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19. The graph shows changes in the atmosphere occurring above typical air-mass source regions A, B, C, and D. Changes in air temperature and altitude are shown as the graphed lines. Changes in water-vapor content, in grams of vapor per kilogram of air, are shown as numbers on each graphed line.

7 6

Altitude (km)

5

A

0.2

B 4 3 2 1

0.4 0.5

C 4.3

0.4 0.8 1.5

0.8 1.0

D

6.3

5.6

9.3 2.7

14.9

1.0 4.4 17.3 0 –50 –40 –30 –20 –10 0 10 20 Temperature (°C)

7.9 9.8

30

11.2 40 50

Which list best identifies each air-mass source region? (1) (2) (3) (4)

A — cT; B — cP; C — mP; D — mT A — cP; B — mP; C — mT; D — cT A — mP; B — mT; C — cT; D — cP A — mT; B — cT; C — cP; D — mP

Correct Answer: (2) Continental polar masses are characterized as cold and dry. Because air mass A is the driest and coldest, it is likely to be continental polar. Maritime polar masses are characterized as cold and moist (since the moisture-holding capacity of cold air is low, an mP is not as moist as an mT). Air masses B and C are likely to be maritime polar and maritime tropical, respectively. Continental tropical masses are characterized as warmer and drier than maritime tropical masses and are best represented by air mass D. (Air Masses)

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Meteorology Base your answers to questions 20 through 23 on the weather map. The map shows a low-pressure system and some atmospheric conditions at weather stations A, B, and C.

71 55

cP

10

70 C 50

12

L 82 B 82

996 A 1000 88

82 65

84

1004

1008

mT

91 86

20. Which type of weather is usually associated with a cP air mass, as shown near weather station C? (1) (2) (3) (4)

moist and cool moist and warm dry and cool dry and warm

Correct Answer: (3) The continental part of the cP air mass means it has characteristics of dry land. Hence, this air mass is dry. The polar part means that it has air characteristics of the polar regions—cool! Therefore, you can expect weather that is both dry and cool. (Air Masses)

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21. Which cross section best represents the air masses, air movement, clouds, and precipitation occurring behind and ahead of the warm front located between stations A and B? Warm air Warm air

A

Cool air

Cool air

B

B

A

(1 )

(3 ) Warm air Warm air

Cool air

Cool air

A

B (2)

A

B (4 )

Correct Answer: (3) A warm front is approaching point B and has already passed point A. A warm front has a much gentler slope than a cold front. As a result, there is a very large area of contact between the approaching warm air, and the existing cooler air. As these two air temperatures meet, the warm air (less dense) is forced upward above the cold, causing it to cool to the dew point temperature. The result is a long steady rain. The diagram that best illustrates this is found in choice 3. (Fronts)

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Meteorology

22. The arrows on which map best represent the direction of surface winds associated with this lowpressure system?

Low

(1)

Low

(2)

Low

(3)

Low

(4)

Correct Answer: (2) Wind flows from high pressure toward regions of low pressure. Therefore, look for a map that shows air flowing into the low-pressure region. That narrows the choices down to map 1 and map 2. In the Northern Hemisphere, air flows counterclockwise around a low-pressure system. This is shown in choice 2. (Weather)

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23. If this weather system follows a normal storm track, the low-pressure center (L) will generally move toward the (1) (2) (3) (4)

northeast. northwest. southeast. southwest.

Correct Answer: (1) The region represented in the diagram is a section of North America above 30° N latitude. According to the Earth Science Reference Tables, Planetary Wind and Moisture Belts in the Troposphere, wind in this latitude flows toward the northeast. (Atmosphere) 24. Which two gases have been added to Earth’s atmosphere in large amounts and are believed to have increased global warming by absorbing infrared radiation? (1) (2) (3) (4)

neon and argon chlorine and nitrogen hydrogen and helium methane and carbon dioxide

Correct Answer: (4) Methane and carbon dioxide allow shortwave ultraviolet radiation from the sun to penetrate the atmosphere and reach the Earth’s surface, but they don’t allow as much of the long wave infrared radiation emitted by the earth to exit. Some of the infrared heat is absorbed or reflected back to the Earth. This leads to increased global temperatures. (Atmospheric Energy) 25. In which direction do the surface winds blow around a high-pressure system in the Northern Hemisphere? (1) (2) (3) (4)

clockwise and inward clockwise and outward counterclockwise and inward counterclockwise and outward

Correct Answer: (2) Winds in a high-pressure system blow clockwise and out, whereas winds in a lowpressure system blow counterclockwise and inward. (Weather) 26. Surface winds on Earth are primarily caused by differences in (1) (2) (3) (4)

air density due to unequal heating of Earth’s surface. ocean wave heights during the tidal cycle. rotational speeds of Earth’s surface at various latitudes. distances from the Sun during the year.

Correct Answer: (1) Wind is generated by differences in pressure between regions due to uneven surface heating. As a result, air in the region of higher atmospheric pressure will flow down its concentration gradient to a region of lower atmospheric pressure to establish equilibrium between the regions. (Atmosphere)

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Meteorology 27. Which map best represents the direction of surface winds associated with the high- and lowpressure systems? 10 04

10 04

8

1

100

10 00

2 01

8

2 01

H

1008

10 00

100

1008

H

1

L

L

992

992

996

101

2

996

101

2

10

10

16

16

(1)

(3) 10 04

10

L

L 992

(2)

996

101

2

10

16

8

2

10

992 996

101

100

10

10 00

12

8

12

H

1008

10 00

100

1008

H

10 04

16

(4)

Correct Answer: (3) In the Northern Hemisphere, the circulation of air with respect to a high-pressure system is characterized as outward and clockwise, whereas the circulation of air with respect to a lowpressure system is characterized as inward and counterclockwise. (Air Masses) 28. What is the relative humidity when the air temperature is 29°C and the wet-bulb temperature is 23°C? (1) (2) (3) (4)

6% 20% 54% 60%

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CliffsTestPrep Regents Earth Science: The Physical Setting Workbook Correct Answer: (4) Using the Earth Science Reference Tables, find the Relative Humidity table. The air temperature (29 degrees) represents the dry-bulb temperature. Because the dry-bulb column only lists 28 and 30 degrees, you must put your finger in between the two. Next slide your finger over to 6 (you must take the difference between 29 and 23), and you will see that the relative humidity is in between 59% and 61% (which is why the correct answer is 60%). (Atmospheric Variables) 29. The diagram here shows wind flowing over a mountain range.

Windward side

Leeward side

Mountain range

As the wind flows down the leeward side of the mountain range, the air becomes (1) (2) (3) (4)

cooler and drier. cooler and wetter. warmer and drier. warmer and wetter.

Correct Answer: (3) As air moves down the leeward side of the mountain, it will compress. The compression warms the air and moves the temperature farther away from the dew point. (Adiabatic Changes) Base your answers to questions 30 through 34 on the two cross sections that follow, which represent the Pacific Ocean and the atmosphere near the Equator during normal weather (cross section A) and during El Niño conditions (cross section B). Sea surface temperatures (SST) are labeled, and trade-wind directions are shown with arrows. Cloud buildup indicates regions of frequent thunderstorm activity. The change from normal sea level is shown at the side of each diagram.

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Meteorology Cross Section A: Normal Weather

Water level (+40 cm)

Water level (+0 cm)

Trade winds SST 25°C

SST 28°C

Normal sea level

South America

Australia

Cross Section B: El Niño Conditions

Water level (+30 cm)

Water level (+15 cm)

Trade winds SST 28°C

Normal sea level

South America

Australia

Key Colder ocean water Frequent thunderstorms

Warmer ocean water SST

Sea surface temperature

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30. Which statement correctly describes sea surface temperatures along the South American coast and Pacific trade winds during El Niño conditions? (1) The sea surface temperatures are warmer than normal, and Pacific trade winds are from the west. (2) The sea surface temperatures are warmer than normal, and Pacific trade winds are from the east. (3) The sea surface temperatures are cooler than normal, and Pacific trade winds are from the west. (4) The sea surface temperatures are cooler than normal, and Pacific trade winds are from the east. Correct Answer: (1) According to the diagram for El Niño conditions, sea surface temperatures are uniformly higher than compared with normal conditions, and trade winds are traveling from west to east. (Weather) 31. Compared to normal weather conditions, the shift of the trade winds caused sea levels during El Niño conditions to (1) (2) (3) (4)

decrease at both Australia and South America. decrease at Australia and increase at South America. increase at Australia and decrease at South America. increase at both Australia and South America.

Correct Answer: (2) The shift of trade winds during El Niño caused the sea level to rise at South America due the wind blowing the warm water layer back towards the east. This prevents the upwelling of the deeper, colder water. (Weather) 32. During El Niño conditions, thunderstorms increase in the eastern Pacific Ocean region because the warm, moist air is (1) (2) (3) (4)

less dense, sinking, compressing, and warming. less dense, rising, expanding, and cooling. more dense, sinking, compressing, and warming. more dense, rising, expanding, and cooling.

Correct Answer: (2) The formation of thunderclouds associated with El Niño initially involves the rising of warm, moist air of low density. As the air rises, it expands as it travels upward through air of progressively lower pressure. The expansion of the air causes its molecules to lose kinetic energy and cool. The cooling of the air leads to condensation and cloud formation. (Weather)

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Meteorology

33. The development of El Niño conditions over this region of the Pacific Ocean has caused (1) (2) (3) (4)

changes in worldwide precipitation patterns. the reversal of Earth’s seasons. increased worldwide volcanic activity. decreased ozone levels in the atmosphere.

Correct Answer: (1) El Niño influences worldwide precipitation patterns. The reversal of the Earth’s seasons would be caused by changes in the direction of the Earth’s tilt. An increase in worldwide volcanic activity would be caused by changes within the Earth’s mantle. A decrease in ozone levels would be caused by a decline in air pollution. (Weather) 34. Earth’s entire equatorial climate zone is generally a belt around Earth that has (1) (2) (3) (4)

high air pressure and wet weather. high air pressure and dry weather. low air pressure and wet weather. low air pressure and dry weather.

Correct Answer: (3) According to the Earth Science Reference Tables, Planetary Wind and Moisture Belts in the Troposphere, the Earth’s equatorial zone is characterized as a zone whereby N.E. and S.E. trade winds converge and rise into the atmosphere to establish a belt of low pressure. The moist air will expand and cool as it rises to ultimately form clouds and precipitation. (Weather)

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35. The cross sections here show different patterns of air movement in Earth’s atmosphere. Air temperatures at Earth’s surface are indicated in each cross section. Which cross section shows the most likely pattern of air movement in Earth’s atmosphere that would result from the surface air temperatures shown?

Warm

Warm ool

C

Earth’s surface

Coo

ool

l

C

Earth’s surface

l

Warm

Warm C

Coo

(3)

(1)

ool

Earth’s surface

Coo

ool

l

C

Earth’s surface

Coo

l

(4)

(2)

Correct Answer: (2) Warm air, being less dense than its surroundings will rise. As it does so, it will gradually cool, becoming denser. As a consequence of its increased density, the air will sink back toward the surface. The resulting circulation pattern that is established is often called a convection cell. (Atmosphere) 36. Various weather conditions at LaGuardia Airport in New York City are shown on the station model here.

43

146

40

.06

3 4

What were the barometric pressure and weather conditions at the airport at the time of the observation? (1) (2) (3) (4)

182

914.6 mb of pressure and smog 914.6 mb of pressure and a clear sky 1014.6 mb of pressure and smog 1014.6 mb of pressure and a clear sky

Meteorology Correct Answer: (3) Turn to the Earth Science Reference Tables and locate the station model. Pressure is written in the upper right hand of the station model; however, it is in abbreviated form. You must convert the abbreviated number into the actual pressure reading (in millibars). If the number is below 500, you must add a 10 and a decimal point in the tenths place. If the number is above 500, you add a 9 and a decimal point. Because 146 is below 500, you add a 10 and convert it to 1014.6 mb. Next, look at “present weather symbols” below the station model. The symbol for smog is shown and can be found on the middle left side of the station model that appears in the question. (Weather Maps) 37. The properties of an air mass are mostly determined by the (1) (2) (3) (4)

rate of Earth’s rotation. direction of Earth’s surface winds. source region where the air mass formed. path the air mass follows along a land surface.

Correct Answer: (3) The source region over which an air mass forms determines the properties of the air mass. Relatively, if the air mass forms over water, it will be moister, and if it forms over land, it will be drier. Air masses from the tropics will be relatively warmer than air masses originating from those coming from higher latitudes. (Air Masses)

Open-Ended Questions Base your answers to questions 38 through 41 on the data table, which shows recorded information for a major Atlantic hurricane.

Hurricane Data Date

Time

Latitude

Longitude

Maximum Winds (knots)

Air Pressure (mb)

Sept. 10

11:00 a.m.

19° N

59° W

70

989

Sept. 11

11:00 a.m.

22° N

62° W

95

962

Sept. 12

11:00 a.m.

23° N

67° W

105

955

Sept. 13

11:00 a.m.

24° N

72° W

135

921

Sept. 14

11:00 a.m.

26° N

77° W

125

932

Sept. 15

11:00 a.m.

30° N

79° W

110

943

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CliffsTestPrep Regents Earth Science: The Physical Setting Workbook

38. Using the latitude and longitude data in the table, place an X on the map provided for each location of the hurricane during these 6 days. Connect all the Xs with a solid line.

50° N

45° N

40° N

35° N

30° N

25° N

20° N

15° N

10° N 85° W 80° W 75° W 70° W 65° W 60° W 55° W 50° W 45° W Scale 0

500 kilometers

39. Label the September 15 (9/15) position of the hurricane on the map. Starting from this plotted position on September 15, draw a dashed line on the map provided to indicate the storm’s most likely path for the next five days.

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Meteorology Correct Answer for 38 and 39:

50° N

45° N

40° N

35° N

30° N

25° N

X 9/15

X X

X

X

20° N

X

15° N

10° N 85° W 80° W 75° W 70° W 65° W 60° W 55° W 50° W 45° W Scale 0

500 kilometers

40. Identify the weather instrument used to measure the air pressure associated with this hurricane. Correct Answer: Barometers measure air pressure. (Atmosphere) 41. Describe the relationship between air pressure and wind speed associated with this hurricane. Correct Answer: According to the data table, as barometric pressure within the hurricane drops, wind speed increases. This occurs due to the establishment of steep pressure gradients between the hurricane’s low-pressure center and surrounding areas. The greater the difference in air pressure between the regions, the faster air will be drawn into the hurricane’s low-pressure center. (Hurricanes and Tornadoes)

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CliffsTestPrep Regents Earth Science: The Physical Setting Workbook Base your answers to questions 42 and 43 on the weather map shown here, which shows the position of a low-pressure system. The L is the center of the low. The shaded portion represents an area of precipitation. A weather station model for Albany, New York, is shown on the map.

38 38

Albany

L

N

42. What type of front extends eastward from the low-pressure center? Correct Answer: According to the Earth Science Reference Tables, Weather Map Symbols, the front extending eastward from the low is characterized as being occluded. (Fronts) 43. Complete the weather data table for Albany, New York, based on the station model shown on the map.

Weather Data Table for Albany Relative humidity (%) Wind direction from Wind speed (knots) Present weather

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Meteorology Correct Answer: This information can be found in the Earth Science Reference Tables, Weather Map Symbols.

Weather Data Table for Albany Relative humidity (%)

100

Wind direction from

NNW or NW or in words

Wind speed (knots)

25 (±2)

Present weather

Rain

Base your answers to questions 44 and 45 on the weather map provided, which shows a large white band of clouds moving toward the southeast. The line shown in the middle of the white cloud band is the frontal boundary between a cP air mass and an mT air mass. Two large arrows show the direction the front is moving.

cP mT

44. On the frontal boundary line on the weather map provided, draw the weather front symbol to represent the front moving toward the southeast. 45. On the same weather map, indicate the geographic region that was most likely the source of the warm, moist (mT) air mass.

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CliffsTestPrep Regents Earth Science: The Physical Setting Workbook Correct Answer for 44 and 45:

cP mT

Front symbols should always be placed in the direction in which the front is moving, in this case on the bottom of the line toward the southwest. The cold front symbol can be found on the Earth Science Reference Tables, Front Symbols. (Fronts) Maritime tropical air masses originated over warm bodies of water. Thus, an X should be placed in the southern portion of the Atlantic Ocean or the Gulf of Mexico. The symbols are decoded in the Air Masses section in the Earth Science Reference Tables, Air Masses.

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Meteorology

46. The map provided shows six source regions for different air masses that affect the weather of North America. The directions of movement of the air masses are shown. Using the standard two-letter air-mass symbols from the Earth Science Reference Tables, Air Masses, label the air masses by writing the correct symbol in each circle on the map.

3 _____

1

2

_____

_____

5

4

_____

6 _____

_____

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CliffsTestPrep Regents Earth Science: The Physical Setting Workbook Correct Answer:

3

mP _____

1

2

mP _____

cA or cP _____

5

4

cT _____

6

mT _____ mT _____

190

The Water Cycle and Climates Multiple-Choice Questions For each statement or question, choose the number of the word or expression that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. If Earth’s axis were tilted 35° instead of 23.5°, the average temperatures in New York State would most likely (1) (2) (3) (4)

decrease in both summer and winter. decrease in summer and increase in winter. increase in summer and decrease in winter. increase in both summer and winter.

Correct Answer: (3) The angle of inclination of the Earth is 23.5 degrees. If the angle of inclination increased to 35 degrees, the Northern Hemisphere would be tilted more toward the sun in the summer months and tilted more away from the sun in the winter months. (Factors Affecting Climates) 2. Which ocean current flows northeast along the eastern coast of North America? (1) (2) (3) (4)

Gulf Stream North Equatorial California Labrador

Correct Answer: (1) According to the Earth Science Reference Tables, Surface Ocean Currents, along the eastern cost of North America, flowing northeast, exists only one ocean current: the Gulf Stream. (Ocean Currents)

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3. Most of the Gulf Stream Ocean Current is (1) (2) (3) (4)

warm water that flows southwestward. warm water that flows northeastward. cool water that flows southwestward. cool water that flows northeastward.

Correct Answer: (2) Turn to the Earth Science Reference Tables, Surface Ocean Currents. Locate the Gulf Stream off the east coast of the United States in the Atlantic Ocean. You will notice that the arrow is colored in, which means that it is a warm current and the arrow is flowing northeast toward England. (Ocean Currents) 4. The coldest climates on Earth are located at or near the poles primarily because Earth’s polar regions (1) (2) (3) (4)

receive mostly low-angle insolation. receive less total yearly hours of daylight. absorb the greatest amount of insolation. are usually farthest from the Sun.

Correct Answer: (1) At the poles of the Earth, the angle of insolation is lowest, meaning that the Sun’s rays are striking the ground at a shallow angle and therefore spread out more. As a result, the intensity of insolation is low. A common misconception is that the poles receive less hours of sunlight than the equatorial regions. This is not so. Over the course of a year the duration of insolation is actually the same, but the intensity of insolation is greater at the equatorial regions. (Factors Affecting Climates) 5. Which set of surface soil conditions on a hillside would result in the most infiltration of rainfall? (1) (2) (3) (4)

gentle slope, saturated soil, no vegetation gentle slope, unsaturated soil, vegetation steep slope, saturated soil, vegetation steep slope, unsaturated soil, no vegetation

Correct Answer: (2) Infiltration means the water will enter the ground (as opposed to run off). A gentle slope means the land is flat and the water will sit there longer (allowing for more infiltration). In addition the soil needs to be unsaturated (its pore spaces can’t already be filled with water). Finally, vegetation will absorb more water, increasing infiltration. (The Water Cycle)

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The Water Cycle and Climates

Amount of Infrared Absorbed by Atmosphere

Amount of Infrared Absorbed by Atmosphere

6. Which graph best shows the relationship between the concentration of carbon dioxide in Earth’s atmosphere and the amount of infrared radiation absorbed by the atmosphere?

Concentration of Carbon Dioxide

(1)

(3)

Amount of Infrared Absorbed by Atmosphere

Amount of Infrared Absorbed by Atmosphere

Concentration of Carbon Dioxide

Concentration of Carbon Dioxide

Concentration of Carbon Dioxide

(2)

(4)

Correct Answer: (1) There is a direct relationship between the amount of carbon dioxide in the Earth’s atmosphere and the amount of infrared radiation that the atmosphere absorbs. The carbon dioxide helps to trap the infrared radiation (heat) causing a “Greenhouse Effect.” (Energy Sources for Earth Systems)

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CliffsTestPrep Regents Earth Science: The Physical Setting Workbook

7. The diagram here shows a greenhouse.

n atio l o Ins

Clear glass

Greenhouse What is the primary function of the clear glass of the greenhouse? (1) The glass reduces the amount of insolation entering the greenhouse. (2) The glass allows all wavelengths of radiation to enter and all wavelengths of radiation to escape. (3) The glass allows short wavelengths of radiation to enter, but reduces the amount of long wavelength radiation that escapes. (4) The glass allows long wavelengths of radiation to enter, but reduces the amount of short wavelength radiation that escapes. Correct Answer: (3) The glass panels of a greenhouse allow shortwave visible light energy to enter and become absorbed by objects within. As these objects heat up, they begin to emit long infrared wavelengths that cannot penetrate the glass panels. Consequently, the temperatures within a greenhouse are often higher than the surrounding air temperature. (Energy Sources for Earth Systems) 8. Compared to an inland location, a location on an ocean shore at the same elevation and latitude is likely to have (1) (2) (3) (4)

cooler winters and cooler summers. cooler winters and warmer summers. warmer winters and cooler summers. warmer winters and warmer summers.

Correct Answer: (3) The oceans have a very high heat capacity in comparison to the ground. This means that if the oceans and land surfaces are both exposed to the same intensity and duration of insolation, the water will not heat up as quickly. The converse is also true, hot water will cool more slowly than

194

The Water Cycle and Climates the surrounding landmasses. As a result, the changes in temperature for regions around large bodies of water (specifically the oceans) are not as severe as inland locations where there are no large bodies of water. (Factors Affecting Climates) 9. Snowfall is rare at the South Pole because the air over the South Pole is usually (1) (2) (3) (4)

rising and moist. rising and dry. sinking and moist. sinking and dry.

Correct Answer: (4) Turn to the Earth Science Reference Tables and find the Planetary Wind and Moisture Belts in the Troposphere chart. Locate the South Pole. Notice the arrows by the South Pole show that the air is sinking. If you follow the sinking arrows, you will notice that the word “dry” is written on the South Pole. Sinking air is generally drier than rising air. (Factors Affecting Climates) 10. Which surface soil type has the slowest permeability rate and is most likely to produce flooding? (1) (2) (3) (4)

pebbles sand silt clay

Correct Answer: (4) Permeability is directly related to particle size. The larger the particles are, the faster water will infiltrate. The smaller the particles are, the slower the water will infiltrate. Using the Earth Science Reference Tables, locate the Relationship of Transported Particle Size to Water Velocity chart. You will find that clay is the smallest particle on the chart. (Groundwater) 11. During nighttime cooling, most of the energy radiated by Earth’s oceans into space is (1) (2) (3) (4)

ultraviolet rays. gamma rays. visible light rays. infrared rays.

Correct Answer: (4) When the short wavelength UV radiation is absorbed by the Earth, some is used to heat up the land and the water. Energy is reradiated as longer wavelength infrared radiation because the temperature of the land/water is lower, and therefore the energy given off is of a longer wavelength. (Energy Sources for Earth Systems)

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CliffsTestPrep Regents Earth Science: The Physical Setting Workbook Base your answers to question 12 on the graph, which shows the amount of insolation during one year at four different latitudes on Earth’s surface.

Insolation at Different Latitudes 2.0

Equa

tor 0°

1.8

Insolation (cal/cm2/min)

1.6

30

°N

1.4 1.2 1.0 0.8

60 °N

0.6

90 °N

0.4 0.2 0.0

Jan. Feb. Mar. Apr. May Jun. Jul. Aug. Sep. Oct. Nov. Dec.

Month 12. This graph shows that insolation varies with (1) (2) (3) (4)

latitude and time of day. latitude and time of year. longitude and time of day. longitude and time of year.

Correct Answer: (2) Latitude and time of year are the two biggest factors that determine the amount of insolation an area will receive. The areas closest to the equator tend to receive the most direct insolation. In addition, depending on the latitude of an area, the month of the year will be important because of the tilt of the Earth. (Factors Affecting Climates)

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The Water Cycle and Climates

Intensity of Insolation

Intensity of Insolation

13. Which graph best represents the relationship between the angle of insolation and the intensity of insolation?

0°

90°

0°

90°

(1)

(3)

Intensity of Insolation

Angle of Insolation

Intensity of Insolation

Angle of Insolation

0°

90°

0°

90°

Angle of Insolation

Angle of Insolation

(2)

(4)

Correct Answer: (2) The relationship between the angle of insolation (height of the sun in the sky) and its intensity (strength) is directly proportional. As the angle of insolation increases, its intensity also increases. (Energy Sources for Earth Systems) 14. Which two ocean currents are both warm currents that primarily flow away from the equator? (1) (2) (3) (4)

Guinea Current and Labrador Current Brazil Current and Agulhas Current Alaska Current and Falkland Current Canaries Current and Gulf Stream Current

Correct Answer: (2) According to the Earth Science Reference Tables, Surface Ocean Currents, both the Brazil and Agulhas Currents are warm and flow away from the equator. Both of these currents flow along the east coast of a continent, from the equator toward the South Pole. All the other choices have one warm and one cold current. (Ocean Currents)

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15. The cross section here shows the prevailing winds that cause different climates on the windward and leeward sides of this mountain range.

Windward side Prevailing wind

Leeward side

Mountain range

Ocean

Compared to the climate conditions on the leeward side of this mountain range, the conditions on the windward side are usually (1) (2) (3) (4)

cooler and wetter. cooler and drier. warmer and wetter. warmer and drier.

Correct Answer: (1) As air moves up along the windward side of a mountain, it expands, cools, and ultimately reaches the dew point, upon which condensation occurs and clouds form. As a result, the climate on the windward side is usually cool and wet. As air descends down the leeward side of a mountain, it becomes compressed and heats up. As a result, the climate of the leeward side is usually warmer and drier. (Factors Affecting Climates) 16. One result of a large volcanic eruption is that surface air temperatures decrease over a sizable region of Earth. This phenomenon occurs because volcanic eruptions usually decrease the (1) (2) (3) (4)

transparency of the atmosphere. number of dust particles entering the atmosphere. amount of moisture in the atmosphere. reflection of sunlight within the atmosphere.

Correct Answer: (1) Particulate matter ejected into the atmosphere during a volcanic eruption can reflect, scatter, and absorb sunlight before it reaches the surface. Therefore, the surface absorbs less sunlight resulting in a decrease in surface temperatures. (Energy Sources for Earth Systems) 17. The California Ocean Current, which flows along the west coast of North America, is a (1) (2) (3) (4)

cool current, flowing north. cool current, flowing south. warm current, flowing north. warm current, flowing south.

Correct Answer: (2) According to the Earth Science Reference Tables, Surface Ocean Currents, the California current is a cool, southward flowing surface ocean current. (Ocean Currents)

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The Water Cycle and Climates

18. When 1 gram of liquid water at 0°C freezes to form ice, how many total calories of heat are lost by the water? (1) (2) (3) (4)

1 0.5 80 540

Correct Answer: (3) According to the Earth Science Reference Tables, Properties of Water, during the freezing processes there will be 80 calories/gram of energy released. (Phase Changes)

Open-Ended Questions Base your answers to question 19 on the table and graph. The table labeled “Animal Key” shows symbols to represent various animal groups that exist on Earth. The graph shows inferred changes in Earth’s average temperatures over the last 500 million years. Animal Key Letter

Picture

Animal Group

A

Birds

B

Fish

C

Amphibians

D

Mammals

E

Humans

F

Reptiles

Earth’s Average Temperature

Inferred Changes in Earth’s Average Temperature Warmer

Cooler 500

400

300

200

100

0

Millions of Years Ago

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CliffsTestPrep Regents Earth Science: The Physical Setting Workbook

19. The two factors listed here could have caused the temperature variations shown on the graph. For each factor, state the effect that the increase described would have had on Earth’s temperature, and explain why that temperature change would have taken place. Factors a. Increase in carbon dioxide (CO2) and water vapor (H2O gas) content of Earth’s atmosphere b. Increase in volcanic ash in Earth’s atmosphere Correct Answer: a. An increase in atmospheric carbon dioxide and water vapor would have caused global temperatures to rise. Being greenhouse gases, elevated amounts of carbon dioxide and water vapor would have contributed to a more intense greenhouse effect. This would lead to more terrestrial radiation being absorbed within the atmosphere, resulting in higher temperatures. (Factors Affecting Climates) b. An increase in volcanic ash in the atmosphere would have caused global temperatures to fall. The ash would have reduced the amount of insolation available to heat the Earth’s surface, resulting in lower temperatures. (Factors Affecting Climates) Base your answers to questions 20 and 21 on the map and data tables given. The map shows the location of Birdsville and Bundaberg in Australia. The first table shows the average monthly high temperatures for Birdsville. The second data table includes the latitude and longitude, elevation above sea level, and the average rainfall in January for Birdsville and Bundaberg.

Map of Australia Indian Ocean

Pacific Ocean Bundaberg Birdsville

Key Mountains

200

N

The Water Cycle and Climates

Average Monthly High Temperatures for Birdsville, Australia Month

Temperature (°C)

January

39

February

38

March

35

April

30.5

May

25

June

22

July

21

August

23.5

September

28

October

32.5

November

36

December

38

Information About Two Australian Cities City

Latitude (° S)

Longitude (° E)

Elevation (m)

Average January Rainfall (mm)

Birdsville

25.9

139.4

47

25

Bundaberg

24.9

152.4

14

105

20. State one factor that could account for the difference between the average high temperatures recorded in December for Birdsville and Bundaberg. Correct Answer: Near water = Moderate change Areas near bodies of water tend to have more moderate temperature changes (moderate highs and moderate lows); whereas areas inland tend to have more extreme temperature changes (higher highs and lower lows). (Factors Affecting Climates) 21. State one reason for the difference in the average January rainfall for Birdsville and Bundaberg. Correct Answer: Near water = Moisture Bundaberg is near the water, which provides moisture, whereas Birdsville is inland. In addition, Bundaberg is on the windward side of the mountain, while Birdsville is on the leeward side. Either answer will do. (Factors Affecting Climates)

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CliffsTestPrep Regents Earth Science: The Physical Setting Workbook Base your answers to questions 22 through 25 on the map and graphs. The map shows five climate regions of New York State. The bar graphs show average monthly temperatures of four of these climate regions.

Some Climate Regions of New York State

4

Temperature (°F)

Region 1

3

80 60 40 20 0

J

F

M

A

M

J

J

A

S

O

N

D

S

O

N

D

S

O

N

D

S

O

N

D

Region 2 Temperature (°F)

2 1

80 60 40 20 0

J

F

M

A

M

J

J

A

5 Temperature (°F)

Region 3 80 60 40 20 0

J

F

M

A

M

J

J

A

Temperature (°F)

Region 4 80 60 40 20 0

J

F

M

A

M

J

J

A

22. The average monthly temperatures for climate regions 1, 2, 3, and 4 show a similar yearly pattern of change. Identify one climate control factor that these four climate regions have in common that most probably causes this similarity in temperature pattern. Correct Answer: Each of the locations 1 through 4 have similar latitudes ranging from 42 to 45 degrees north. Each area is likely to receive roughly the same duration and intensity of insolation year round, contributing to similar temperature patterns. (Factors Affecting Climates) 23. What climate variable, other than temperature, was also used to identify these areas as four different climate regions?

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The Water Cycle and Climates

Correct Answer: In addition to temperature, climatic zones are also classified according to average annual rainfall amounts. (Factors Affecting Climates) 24. What landscape characteristic of climate region 3 most likely causes it to have both cooler summer temperatures and cooler winter temperatures than climate region 2? Correct Answer: According to the Earth Science Reference Tables, Generalized Landscape Regions of New York State, region 3 is located in the Adirondack Mountains. Thus, the high elevation of location 3 would result in it having lower summer and winter temperatures than region 2. (Factors Affecting Climates) 25. Describe how the Atlantic Ocean surrounding climate region 5 has most probably influenced the average temperatures of this region during January, February, and March. Correct Answer: Region 5 is considered to be in a maritime climate zone in which the surrounding water has a moderating effect on summer and winter temperatures. The high specific heat of water causes it to heat up and cool down more slowly than adjacent landmasses, resulting in slightly cooler summer temperatures and warmer winter temperatures compared to locations at the same latitude. (Factors Affecting Climates) Base your answers to questions 26 and 27 on the map below, which shows one method of classifying Earth’s surface into latitudinal climate belts. In the tropical climate belt, the average monthly temperatures never drop below 18°C. In the polar climate belts, the average monthly temperatures never rise above 10°C. The isotherms show the average monthly temperature of the coolest and warmest months. Effects of elevation have been omitted.

10°C isotherm of warmest month

Polar climates (no summer)

Latitude 60° N

18°C isotherm of coolest month

40° N

Mid-latitude climates

20° N Tropical climates (no winter)

0° 20° S

18°C isotherm of coolest month

Mid-latitude climates 40° S Polar climates

10°C isotherm of warmest month

(no summer)

60° S

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26. According to the isotherms on the map, locations in the mid-latitude climate belts have average monthly temperatures between what values? Correct Answer: According to the map, mid-latitude climates have average monthly temperatures ranging from 10°C to 18°C. (Factors Affecting Climates) 27. Describe a specific characteristic of insolation received in the tropical climate belt region that causes the average monthly temperature to remain warm all year. Correct Answer: The tropics remain warm all year due to the high angle, intensity, and duration of insolation received. The amount of surface heating is directly proportional to an increase in the angle, intensity, and duration of insolation an area receives. (Factors Affecting Climates)

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Astronomy Multiple-Choice Questions For each statement or question, choose the number of the word or expression that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Which event takes the most time? (1) (2) (3) (4)

one revolution of Earth around the Sun one revolution of Venus around the Sun one rotation of the Moon on its axis one rotation of Venus on its axis

Correct Answer: (1) According to the Earth Science Reference Tables, the Earth’s revolution takes 365.26 days. Out of the four choices, the Earth’s revolution around the Sun takes the longest. (Earth’s Motions and Their Effects) 2. Which star has a higher luminosity and a lower temperature than the Sun? (1) (2) (3) (4)

Rigel Barnard’s Star Alpha Centauri Aldebaran

Correct Answer: (4) According to the Earth Science Reference Tables, Luminosity and Temperature of Stars, Aldebaran has a luminosity of 100 (relative to the Sun) and a temperature of about 4,500K. (The Sun’s temperature is about 5,300K.) Conversely, the luminosity of Rigel is more than 10,000 (relative to the sun) and has a temperature of 12,000K. Alpha Centauri has characteristics that are almost identical to the Sun, and Barnard’s Star is both less luminous and cooler than the Sun. (Stellar Astronomy) 3. Which celestial feature is largest in actual size? (1) (2) (3) (4)

the Moon Jupiter the Sun the Milky Way

Correct Answer: (4) Stars, moons, and planets comprise and are thus far smaller in size than galaxies such as the Milky Way. (The Solar System)

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4. Which object is closest to Earth? (1) (2) (3) (4)

the Sun Venus the Moon Mars

Correct Answer: (3) While Venus and Mars revolve around the Sun, the Moon revolves around the Earth and is the closest object to the Earth. (The Solar System) 5. The time required for the Moon to show a complete cycle of phases when viewed from Earth is approximately (1) (2) (3) (4)

1 day. 1 week. 1 month. 1 year.

Correct Answer: (3) According to the Earth Science Reference Tables, Solar System Data, the Moon’s period of revolution is 27.3 days, during which time its position relative to the Earth and Sun changes to produce a complete cycle of phases. (Earth’s Motions and Their Effects) 6. Starlight from distant galaxies provides evidence that the universe is expanding because this starlight shows a shift in wavelength toward the (1) (2) (3) (4)

red-light end of the visible spectrum. blue-light end of the visible spectrum. ultraviolet-ray end of the electromagnetic spectrum. gamma-ray end of the electromagnetic spectrum.

Correct Answer: (1) The shift of radiation toward the red end of the electromagnetic spectrum as an object moves away from an observer is due to the Doppler Effect. The light source is emitting radiation at a specific frequency. If there is relative motion between the source and the observer, the Doppler Effect will produce a change in the observed frequency of radiation by the observer. A shift toward the blue end (and also the higher-frequency radiation types) would indicate the galaxy is moving towards the observer. (Stellar Astronomy)

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7. Which planet’s orbit around the Sun is most nearly circular? (1) (2) (3) (4)

Mercury Neptune Pluto Venus

Correct Answer: (4) The more circular a planet’s orbit, the closer the orbit’s eccentricity is to zero. According to the Earth Science Reference Tables, Solar System Data, of the planets listed, Venus has the lowest eccentricity value (0.007). (The Solar System) 8. The diagram here shows an observer on Earth measuring the altitude of Polaris.

Zenith

Polaris

23.5°

66.5°

Horizon

What is the latitude of this observer? (1) (2) (3) (4)

90° N 66.5° N 43° N 23.5° N

Correct Answer: (2) The altitude at which one views Polaris above the horizon equals the latitude of the observer. In the image, Polaris is 66.5 degrees above the horizon. (Stellar Astronomy)

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9. A Foucault pendulum appears to change its direction of swing over a period of several hours because of Earth’s (1) (2) (3) (4)

rotation. revolution. tilted axis. gravity.

Correct Answer: (1) The Foucault pendulum and the Coriolis Effect are commonly used to illustrate the Earth’s rotation. A pendulum set in motion will swing back and forth in a straight line. Over time, the rotation of the Earth will cause the momentum of the pendulum to change its path in a circular motion opposite the direction of the Earth’s rotation. If the Earth did not rotate, the pendulum wouldn’t change its course. (Earth’s Motion’s and Their Effects) 10. Which planet has an orbital eccentricity most like the orbital eccentricity of the Moon? (1) (2) (3) (4)

Pluto Saturn Mars Mercury

Correct Answer: (2) According to the Earth Science Reference Tables, Solar System Data, Saturn has an orbital eccentricity (.056) most similar to that of the Earth’s moon (.055). (The Solar System) 11. On which day of the year would the intensity of insolation at Kingston, New York, most likely be greatest? (1) (2) (3) (4)

March 21 June 21 September 23 December 21

Correct Answer: (2) For any location in the Northern Hemisphere, the intensity of insolation would be greatest when the sun is most directly overhead. In the Northern Hemisphere, the longest day of the year is June 21, and therefore the Sun reaches the highest position in the sky on that date. As a result, the Sun’s rays are incident upon the Earth’s surface at the steepest angle on that date (from vertical). Because Kingston is at about 42° N latitude, this is above the Tropic of Cancer, and therefore the Sun is never directly overhead. (Earth’s Motions and Their Effects)

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12. The diagram here shows the Moon orbiting Earth, as viewed from space above Earth’s North Pole. The Moon is shown at eight positions in its orbit.

Moon’s orbit

3

4

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Spring ocean tides occur when the difference in height between high tide and low tide is greatest. At which two positions of the Moon will spring tides occur on Earth? (1) (2) (3) (4)

1 and 5 2 and 6 3 and 7 4 and 8

Correct Answer: (1) Positions 1 and 5 are the New Moon and Full Moon positions. This is the time where the Moon and Sun are in line, which causes extra gravitational pull on the Earth. This causes higher high tides, which make the low tides even lower. (Lunar Motions and Their Effects) 13. One complete cycle of the phases of the Moon takes approximately one (1) (2) (3) (4)

day. week. month. year.

Correct Answer: (3) One moon phase cycle takes approximately 27.3 days or one month to complete. (Lunar Motions and Their Effects)

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14. How many times will the Sun’s perpendicular rays cross Earth’s Equator between March 1 of one year and March 1 of the next year? (1) (2) (3) (4)

1 2 3 4

Correct Answer: (2) The Sun’s rays are perpendicular to the equator when the Sun is directly overhead zero degrees latitude. This occurs on both the spring and fall equinoxes. Because the spring equinox occurs on March 21, and the fall equinox on September 22 , these mark two occurrences between March 1 of one year and March 1 of the next year. (Earth’s Motions and Their Effects) 15. On June 21, where will the Sun appear to rise for an observer located in New York State? (1) (2) (3) (4)

due west due east north of due east south of due east

Correct Answer: (3) Following December 21, the Northern Hemisphere begins to tilt toward the sun as the Earth revolves. Consequently, the direction of sunrise and sunset begins to migrate further north of east and west each day. On June 21, sunrise and sunset will attain their furthest northerly position of due east and west for the year. (Earth’s Motions and Their Effects) 16. Compared to other groups of stars, the group that has relatively low luminosities and relatively low temperatures is the (1) (2) (3) (4)

red dwarfs. white dwarfs. red giants. blue supergiants.

Correct Answer: (1) Turn to the Earth Science Reference Tables and locate the Luminosity and Temperature of Stars diagram. For lower temperatures, slide your finger to the right on the x-axis. For low luminosity, slide your finger down on the y-axis. Your finger should be in the lower right corner of the chart where the red dwarfs are. (Stellar Astronomy)

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17. How do Jupiter’s density and period of rotation compare to Earth’s? (1) (2) (3) (4)

Jupiter is less dense and has a longer period of rotation. Jupiter is less dense and has a shorter period of rotation. Jupiter is more dense and has a longer period of rotation. Jupiter is more dense and has a shorter period of rotation.

Correct Answer: (2) According to the Earth Science Reference Tables, Solar System Data, Jupiter has a density of 1.3g/cm3 and a rotational rate of 9 hr 50 min 30 sec. By comparison, the Earth has a density of 5.5g/cm3 and a rotational rate of 23 hr 56 min 4 sec. (The Solar System) 18. The diagram represents the elliptical orbit of a moon revolving around a planet. The foci of this orbit are the points labeled F1 and F2.

Moon

Planet F1

F2

(Drawn to scale)

What is the approximate eccentricity of this elliptical orbit? (1) (2) (3) (4)

0.3 0.5 0.7 1.4

Correct Answer: (3) The eccentricity of an ellipse can be calculated by the following equation, which appears on the Earth Science Reference Tables. eccentricity = distance between foci length of major axis Using the ruler shown on the Earth Science Reference Tables, this ratio is 0.7. (The Solar System)

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19. The same side of the Moon always faces Earth because the (1) (2) (3) (4)

Moon’s period of rotation is longer than its period of revolution around Earth. Moon’s period of rotation is shorter than its period of revolution around Earth. Moon rotates once as it completes one revolution around Earth. Moon does not rotate as it completes one revolution around Earth.

Correct Answer: (3) The moon has the same period of rotation as its revolution. For every degree the moon revolves around the Earth, it will rotate one degree. This causes the same side of the moon to always face the Earth. This explains why we always view “The Man in the Moon.” (Lunar Motions and Their Effects) 20. Which sequence correctly lists the relative sizes from smallest to largest? (1) (2) (3) (4)

our solar system, universe, Milky Way Galaxy our solar system, Milky Way Galaxy, universe Milky Way Galaxy, our solar system, universe Milky Way Galaxy, universe, our solar system

Correct Answer: (2) Our solar system is one tiny dot amongst billions of stars in the Milky Way galaxy. The Milky Way galaxy is one of billions of galaxies in the universe. (Origins of the Universe) 21. Which sequence correctly shows the relative size of the nine planets of our solar system?

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CliffsTestPrep Regents Earth Science: The Physical Setting Workbook Correct Answer: (4) According to the Earth Science Reference Tables, Solar System Data–Equatorial Diameter, the size of the planets from smallest to largest is: Pluto, Mercury, Mars, Venus, Earth, Neptune, Uranus, Saturn, and Jupiter. (The Solar System) 22. The diagram shows a standard spectrum compared to a spectrum produced from a distant star. Which conclusion can be made by comparing the standard spectrum to the spectrum produced from this distant star? (1) The star’s spectral lines have shifted toward the ultraviolet end of the spectrum, and the star is moving toward Earth. (2) The star’s spectral lines have shifted toward the ultraviolet end of the spectrum, and the star is moving away from Earth. (3) The star’s spectral lines have shifted toward the infrared end of the spectrum, and the star is moving toward Earth. (4) The star’s spectral lines have shifted toward the infrared end of the spectrum, and the star is moving away from Earth.

Standard Spectrum Spectral lines Ultraviolet

Infrared

Visible light

Spectrum from Distant Star Spectral lines Ultraviolet

Infrared

Visible light

Correct Answer: (4) As a star moves away from an observer on Earth, the spectral lines produced by that star become Doppler shifted. The light rays become longer, pushing the spectral lines toward the infrared end of the spectrum. Whenever this is observed, it is evidence that this star is moving away from Earth. In the diagram, it is clear that the spectral lines have been shifted toward the infrared end of the spectrum. Consequently, it is inferred that the star is moving away from Earth. (Stellar Astronomy)

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23. Compared to the Jovian planets in our solar system, Earth is (1) (2) (3) (4)

less dense and closer to the Sun. less dense and farther from the Sun. more dense and closer to the Sun. more dense and farther from the Sun.

Correct Answer: (3) The word “Jovian” refers to the outer planets (Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, and Neptune). These planets are larger, but they have a gaseous core making them less dense. The inner “terrestrial” planets (Mercury, Venus, Earth, and Mars) have rocky cores that make them denser. The density and distance information is found on the Earth Science Reference Tables. (The Solar System) 24. The diagram here represents a swinging Foucault pendulum.

Ceiling of room

Swinging pendulum

Pivotal point of attachment

Floor

Ring of pegs This pendulum will show an apparent change in the direction of its swing due to Earth’s (1) (2) (3) (4)

curved surface. tilted axis. rotation. revolution.

Correct Answer: (3) The Foucault pendulum and the Coriolis Effect are commonly used to illustrate the Earth’s rotation. A pendulum set in motion will swing back and forth in a straight line. Over time, the rotation of the Earth will cause the momentum of the pendulum to change its path in a circular motion opposite the direction of the Earth’s rotation. If the Earth did not rotate, the pendulum wouldn’t change its course. (Earth’s Motions and Their Effects)

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25. In each diagram, the mass of the star is the same. In which diagram is the force of gravity greatest between the star and the planet shown?

Planet A Mass = 1

Star

Planet C Mass = 1

Star

Distance = 1

Distance = 2

(1)

(3)

Planet B Mass = 2

Star

Planet D Mass = 2

Star

Distance = 1

Distance = 2

(2)

(4)

Correct Answer: (2) The force of gravity between objects increases as the mass of the objects increases and the distance between the objects decreases. (The Solar System)

Swing

Wire 200

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26. The diagram represents a Foucault pendulum swinging freely for 8 hours.

Steel ball

0 2

4

6 8 hours

Floor

The Foucault pendulum appears to gradually change its direction of swing due to Earth’s (1) (2) (3) (4)

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orbit around the Sun. curved surface. tilted axis. spin on its axis.

Astronomy Correct Answer: (4) As the Earth rotates on its axis, the inertia of the pendulum keeps it in the same orientation in space. Therefore, the Earth rotates on its axis below the pendulum as the steel ball maintains the same orientation in space. (Earth’s Motions and Their Effects) 27. What is represented by the diagram?

Key Moon Sun (1) (2) (3) (4)

changing phases of the Sun changing phases of the Moon stages in an eclipse of the Sun stages in an eclipse of the Moon

Correct Answer: (3) A solar eclipse occurs when the moon passes between the Earth and the Sun such that the moon totally or partially blocks the Sun’s central disk. (Lunar Motions and Their Effects)

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28. The diagram here shows the altitude of the Sun at solar noon on March 21, as seen by an observer at 42° N latitude.

March 21 Sun

Observer located at 42° N Horizon

48°

Compared to the altitude of the Sun observed at solar noon on March 21, the altitude of the Sun observed at solar noon on June 21 will be (1) (2) (3) (4)

15° higher in the sky. 23.5° higher in the sky. 42° higher in the sky. 48° higher in the sky.

Correct Answer: (2) On March 21, the Sun’s direct rays are striking the Equator. On June 21 the Sun’s direct rays will be on the Tropic of Cancer 23.5 degrees north of the Equator. Because the Sun’s rays will be 23.5 degrees closer to the observer, at noon the Sun will appear to move 23.5 degrees higher in the sky. (Earth’s Motions and Their Effects)

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Astronomy Base your answers to questions 29 and 30 on the diagram that follows, which represents a model of the sky (celestial sphere) for an observer in New York State. The curved arrow represents the Sun’s apparent path for part of one day. The altitude of Polaris is also indicated.

Solar noon Polaris

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East 29. According to this diagram, what is the Sun’s altitude at solar noon? (1) (2) (3) (4)

23.5° 42° 48° 90°

Correct Answer: (3) Determine where in the path of the Sun solor noon occurs by realizing the Sun is at its highest in the sky at this time. Using the protractor aligned along the celestial sphere, measure the angle upward from the horizon to the sun. This angle is equal to the altitude of the sun. The measurement falls just short of 50°. The best choice offered is 48°. (Celestial Spheres)

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30. On which date could this observation of the Sun’s apparent path have been made? (1) (2) (3) (4)

March 21 July 21 October 21 December 21

Correct Answer: (1) Notice the sun is rising exactly due east, and setting exactly due west. This only occurs during the vernal (spring) and autumnal (fall) equinoxes. Becasue the autumnal equinox, occurring in late September, is not a choice, your only choice is the spring equinox on March 21. It is important to mention that during the equinoxes, the sun rises due east and sets due west for all latitudes. (Earth’s Motions and Their Effects)

Open-Ended Questions Base your answers to questions 31 through 33 on the diagram provided, which represents the Sun’s rays striking Earth at a position in its orbit around the Sun.

23.5 °

Equ

ato

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Astronomy

31. On the diagram provided, neatly and accurately shade the area of Earth that is in darkness. Correct Answer:

23.5 °

Equ

North Pole

ato

r

Sun’s rays

South Pole Exactly one-half of the Earth is always in darkness. On June 21, all points south of the Antarctic Circle (66.5° S) are in total darkness while all points north of the Arctic Circle (66.5° N) are in sunlight. (Earth’s Motions and Their Effects) 32. On the diagram provided, draw the line of latitude that is receiving the Sun’s direct perpendicular rays on this date. Correct Answer: At noon on June 21, the vertical ray of the Sun strikes the Tropic of Cancer at a latitude of 23.5 degrees north. (Earth’s Motions and Their Effects) 33. What month of the year is represented by the diagram? Correct Answer: The diagram shows the Northern Hemisphere tilted toward the Sun such that the vertical ray strikes the Tropic of Cancer. This position most likely represents the Earth in the month of June. (Earth’s Motions and Their Effects)

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CliffsTestPrep Regents Earth Science: The Physical Setting Workbook Base your answers to questions 34 through 36 on the reading passage and on your knowledge of Earth science.

The Blue Moon

(5)

(10)

A “Blue Moon” is the name given to the second full moon in a calendar month. Because there are roughly 29.5 days between full moons, it is unusual for two full moons to “fit” into a 30 or 31 day month (and impossible to fit into a 28 or 29 day month, so February can never have a Blue Moon). The saying “Once in a Blue Moon” means a rare occurrence, and predates the current astronomical use of the term, which is quite recent. In fact, Blue Moons are not all that rare, on average there will be one Blue Moon every 2.5 years. After 1999, the next Blue Moons will be in November 2001; July 2004; and June 2007. The last one before 1999 was in July 1996. The term Blue Moon is believed to have originated in 1883 after the eruption of Krakatoa. The volcano put so much dust in the atmosphere that the Moon actually looked blue in color. This was so unusual that the term “once in a Blue Moon” was coined. “The Blue Moon” David R. Williams nssdc.gsfc.nasa.gov/planetary/lunar/blue_moon.html

34. Explain why a Blue Moon never occurs during the month of February. Correct Answer: According to the passage, for a Blue Moon to occur, there must be two full moons in a calendar month. February has only 28 or 29 days, and a complete cycle of the Moon phases takes 29 days. (Lunar Motions and Their Effects) 35. What is the greatest number of full-Moon phases, visible from Earth, that are possible in a span of 1 year? Correct Answer: In a year where a Blue Moon occurs, there would be one extra full moon, bringing the annual total to 13. Since the passage described Blue Moons occurring no more often than once every two years, you can infer that the most full moons occurring in a single year is 13. (Lunar Motions and Their Effects)

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36. Draw the relative positions of Earth, the Moon, and the Sun, as viewed from space, so that a fullMoon phase would be visible to an observer on Earth. Label Earth, the Moon, and the Sun in your drawing. Correct Answer:

Sun

Earth

Moon

(Lunar Motions and Their Effects) Base your answers to questions 37 and 38 on the diagram provided in your answer booklet, which shows observations made by a sailor who left his ship and landed on a small deserted island on June 21. The diagram represents the apparent path of the Sun and the position of Polaris, as observed by the sailor on this island. Sailor’s Observations on the Deserted Island 70

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37. On the diagram provided, draw an arrow on the June 21 path of the Sun to show the Sun’s direction of apparent movement from sunrise to sunset. 38. The sailor was still on the island on September 23. On the diagram provided, draw the Sun’s apparent path for September 23, as it would have appeared to the sailor. Be sure your September 23 path indicates the correct altitude of the noon Sun and begins and ends at the correct points on the horizon. Correct Answer: Notice that on June 21, the longest day of the year, the Sun appears to rise in the east and set in the west. This is due to the rotation of the Earth from west to east. (Earth’s Motions and Their Effects) Sailor’s Observations on the Deserted Island 70

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Notice that on September 23, the autumnal equinox, the Sun rises exactly in the east and sets exactly in the west. The correct altitude of the noon Sun can be determined using the following reasoning; first, note that the noontime Sun is at the zenith above the observer on June 21. This means that the Sun is directly overhead at noon at latitude of 23.5° N (the Tropic of Cancer) on that date. On Septerber 23, the noontime Sun will be directly overhead at the Equator. Knowing that the difference in the latitudes is 23.5°, there would be a shift of the noontime Sun of 23.5° toward the south as observed by the observer. Second, notice that the altitude above the horizon to Polaris is 23.5°. The line from Polaris to the observer is perpendicular to the plane created by the arc of the Sun’s path, regardless of the time of the year. Third, as the Earth revolves around the Sun, the apparent paths of the Sun will all be parallel as they traverse across the daytime sky. Looking at the two paths that are drawn, it should be obvious that this is true. (Earth’s Motions and Their Effects)

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39. The diagram provided shows the Sun, the Moon, and Earth in line with one another in space. On the diagram, draw two dots (·) on the surface of Earth to indicate the locations where the highest ocean tides are most likely occurring.

North Pole

Sun

Moon

Earth

(Not drawn to scale) Correct Answer: The highest tides occur when the Earth, moon, and sun are all in alignment. This produces the maximum gravitation pull on the Earth, leading to a direct high tide in the region directly under the moon and an indirect high tide on the opposite side of the Earth. (Lunar Motions and Their Effects)

North Pole

Sun

Moon

Earth

(Not drawn to scale)

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40. Using the Luminosity and Temperature of Stars graph in the Earth Science Reference Tables, list the five stars in order of decreasing relative luminosity, with letter a being the brightest. Aldebaran, Betelgeuse, Polaris, Sirius, the Sun Correct Answer: According to the Earth Science Reference Tables, Luminosity and Temperature of Stars, the stars in order of decreasing luminosity are Betelgeuse, Polaris, Aldebaran, Sirius, and the Sun. (Stellar Astronomy) Base your answers to question 41 on the diagram provided, which shows the latitude-longitude grid on a model of Earth. Point Y is a location on Earth’s surface.

75° 60° 45° 30° 150° 135° 120°

Y 0°

15° 105°

90°

Equator

60°

75°

45°

30° 15°

0° 15° 30° 45° 60°

41. What is Earth’s rate of rotation at point Y, in degrees per hour? Correct Answer: The Earth rotates at a rate of 15 degrees per hour. If you figure that the Earth rotates 360 degrees in 24 hours, 360/24 = 15. (Earth’s Motions and Their Effects)

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Astronomy Base your answers to questions 42 through 44 on the diagrams provided, which show some constellations in the night sky viewed by a group of students. Diagram 1 shows the positions of the constellations at 9:00 P.M. Diagram 2 shows their positions two hours later.

Diagram 1 — 9:00 p.m. Hercules Cygnus Draco

Big Dipper

Cepheus

Cassiopeia

Little Dipper

Perseus

Diagram 2 — 11:00 p.m. Cygnus

Hercules

Draco

Cepheus Cassiopeia

Little Dipper Perseus Big Dipper

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42. Circle Polaris on diagram 2 provided. Correct Answer: Polaris is at the end of the handle of the Little Dipper. (Stellar Astronomy)

Diagram 2 — 11:00 p.m. Cygnus

Hercules

Draco

Cepheus Cassiopeia

Little Dipper Perseus Big Dipper

43. In which compass direction were the students facing? Correct Answer: The students must have been facing north, for Polaris is only visible in the northern sky due to its position directly above the North Pole. (Stellar Astronomy) 44. Describe the apparent direction of movement of the constellations Hercules and Perseus during the two hours between student observations. Correct Answer: All of the constellations appear to move counterclockwise about Polaris during the two hours between student observations. More specifically, Hercules appears to have moved down and to the left (west). Perseus appears to have moved up and to the right (or upward). (Earth’s Motions and Their Effects)

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Self-Evaluation Test with Answer Explanations Answer Sheet Cliffs Answersheets & Misc. Remove this sheet and use it to mark your answers

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Self-Evaluation Test

Answer Explanations

Answer all questions in this part. Directions (1–35): For each statement or question, write on the answer bubble sheet the number of the word or expression that, of those given, best completes the statement or answers the question. Some questions may require the use of the Earth Science Reference Tables.

1. Which list of three planets and Earth’s Moon is arranged in order of increasing equatorial diameter? (1) (2) (3) (4)

Earth’s Moon, Pluto, Mars, Mercury Pluto, Earth’s Moon, Mercury, Mars Mercury, Mars, Earth’s Moon, Pluto Mars, Mercury, Pluto, Earth’s Moon

2. Which physical characteristic best describes the rock phyllite? (1) (2) (3) (4)

glassy texture with gas pockets clastic texture with angular fragments bioclastic texture with cemented shell fragments foliated texture with microscopic mica crystals

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Self-Evaluation Test

Part A

CliffsTestPrep Regents Earth Science: The Physical Setting Workbook 3. The diagram shows a fossil found in the surface bedrock of New York State.

Centroceras Which other fossil is most likely to be found in the same age bedrock? (1) (2) (3) (4)

Phacops condor Coelophysis Tetragraptus

4. A Foucault pendulum appears to change its direction of swing due to the (1) (2) (3) (4)

tilt of Earth’s axis. spin of Earth on its axis. deflection of Earth’s planetary winds. movement of Earth in its orbit around the Sun.

5. The density of Earth’s crust is (1) (2) (3) (4)

less than the density of the outer core but greater than the density of the mantle. greater than the density of the outer core but less than the density of the mantle. less than the density of both the outer core and the mantle. greater than the density of both the outer core and the mantle.

6. At which New York State location will an observer most likely measure the altitude of Polaris as approximately 42°? (1) (2) (3) (4)

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Jamestown Plattsburgh Oswego New York City

Self-Evaluation Test with Answer Explanations 7. Which star’s surface temperature is closest to the temperature at the boundary between Earth’s mantle and core?

Self-Evaluation Test

(1) (2) (3) (4)

Sirius Rigel the Sun Betelgeuse

8. Which map shows the two correctly labeled air masses that frequently converge in the central plains to cause tornadoes?

mP

mT

cT (1)

cP (3)

cP

cT

mT (2)

mP (4)

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CliffsTestPrep Regents Earth Science: The Physical Setting Workbook 9. Which factor most likely causes two cities at the same elevation and latitude to have different yearly average temperature ranges? (1) (2) (3) (4)

rotation of Earth duration of insolation distance from a large body of water direction of prevailing winds

10. The geologic cross section below shows the geologic age of two rock layers separated by an unconformity.

Silurian Cambrian

The unconformity at the bottom of the Silurian rock layer indicates a gap in the geologic time record. What is the minimum time, in millions of years, shown by the gap? (1) (2) (3) (4)

13 47 101 126

11. Most New York State sandstone bedrock was formed (1) (2) (3) (4)

in Earth’s interior where temperatures exceeded the melting point of quartz. on Earth’s surface from the cooling of molten lava. in a delta from sand grains deposited, buried, and cemented together by minerals. in a desert when heat and metamorphic pressure caused quartz crystals to fuse together.

12. Which type of land surface would probably reflect the most incoming solar radiation? (1) (2) (3) (4)

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light colored and smooth light colored and rough dark colored and smooth dark colored and rough

Self-Evaluation Test with Answer Explanations 13. The topographic map shows a hill. Points X and Y represent locations on the hill’s surface. Elevations are shown in meters.

Self-Evaluation Test

400

X

300

Y N

0

1

2 km

What is the gradient between points X and Y? (1) (2) (3) (4)

40 m/km 80 m/km 100 m/km 120 m/km

14. Which sequence shows the correct order of Earth’s geologic time intervals from oldest to youngest? (1) (2) (3) (4)

Archean → Mesozoic → Cenozoic → Paleozoic → Proterozoic Archean → Proterozoic → Paleozoic → Mesozoic → Cenozoic Cenozoic → Mesozoic → Paleozoic → Proterozoic → Archean Cenozoic → Paleozoic → Archean → Mesozoic → Proterozoic

235

CliffsTestPrep Regents Earth Science: The Physical Setting Workbook 15. Which igneous rock, when weathered, could produce sediment composed of the minerals potassium feldspar, quartz, and amphibole? (1) (2) (3) (4)

gabbro granite andesite basalt

16. Which change at a particular location in a stream usually causes more sediments to be deposited at that location? (1) (2) (3) (4)

decrease in stream velocity decrease in stream width increase in stream slope increase in stream discharge

17. Which New York State river flows generally southward? (1) (2) (3) (4)

St. Lawrence River Niagara River Genesee River Hudson River

18. How are the minerals biotite mica and muscovite mica different? (1) (2) (3) (4)

236

Biotite mica is colorless, but muscovite mica is not. Biotite mica contains iron and/or magnesium, but muscovite mica does not. Muscovite mica scratches quartz, but biotite mica does not. Muscovite mica cleaves into thin sheets, but biotite mica does not.

Self-Evaluation Test with Answer Explanations 19. The diagram represents the Moon in its orbit, as viewed from above Earth’s North Pole. Position 1 represents a specific location of the Moon in its orbit.

Self-Evaluation Test

Key Lighted part of Moon

Dark part of Moon

Position 1

North Pole

Sun’s rays

Earth

Moon’s orbit (Not drawn to scale) Which phase of the Moon will be seen from Earth when the Moon is at position 1?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

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CliffsTestPrep Regents Earth Science: The Physical Setting Workbook 20. The diagrams represent four permeable sediment samples. The sediments are composed of the same material, but differ in particle size and sorting. Which sediment sample will most likely have the fastest groundwater infiltration rate?

(1)

(3)

(2)

(4)

21. The table shows air-pressure readings taken at two cities, in the same region of the United States, at noon on four different days.

Air Pressure readings Day

City A Air Pressure (mb)

City B Air Pressure (mb)

1

1004.0

1004.0

2

1000.1

1002.9

3

1000.2

1011.1

4

1010.4

1012.3

The wind speed in the region between cities A and B was probably the greatest at noon on day (1) (2) (3) (4)

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1 2 3 4

Self-Evaluation Test with Answer Explanations 22. The sequence of bedrock cross sections represents the same landscape region over a period of geologic time.

Self-Evaluation Test

Narrow canyon

Plateau

Mesa

Plain

Butte

Sea level 25 million years ago

15 million years ago

Present time

This sequence best represents (1) (2) (3) (4)

an arid region that experienced mostly uplifting forces. an arid region that experienced mostly erosional forces. a humid region that experienced mostly uplifting forces. a humid region that experienced mostly erosional forces.

23. Earth’s fossil record shows evidence that (1) (2) (3) (4)

very few life-forms have become extinct. life-forms existed on land before life-forms existed in water. more complex life-forms probably have evolved from less complex life-forms. older bedrock contains a great variety of life-forms, whereas younger bedrock contains less variety of life-forms.

239

CliffsTestPrep Regents Earth Science: The Physical Setting Workbook 24. The photograph shows deformed rock structure found on Earth’s surface.

Deformed rock structure like this is most often caused by (1) (2) (3) (4)

240

crustal plate collisions. deposition of sediments. extrusion of magma. glacial movement.

Self-Evaluation Test with Answer Explanations

Self-Evaluation Test

Radioactive K-40 (%)

25. The graph here shows the rate of decay of the radioactive isotope K-40 into the decay products Ar-40 and Ca-40.

100 75 50 25 0

0

1.3

2.6 3.9 Time (billion yr)

5.2

6.5

Analysis of a basalt rock sample shows that 25% of its radioactive K-40 remained undecayed. How old is the basalt? (1) (2) (3) (4)

1.3 billion years 2.6 billion years 3.9 billion years 4.6 billion years

26. The diagram here shows Earth on a particular day in its orbit around the Sun. The dashed line represents Earth’s axis.

No

rth

Sun’s rays

Equ

Po

le

ato

r

Which date is represented by the diagram? (1) (2) (3) (4)

March 21 June 21 September 23 December 21

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CliffsTestPrep Regents Earth Science: The Physical Setting Workbook 27. The cross section below shows soil layer X, which was formed from underlying bedrock.

Soil layer X

Bedrock

Which change would most likely cause soil layer X to increase in thickness? (1) (2) (3) (4)

a decrease in slope a decrease in rainfall an increase in biologic activity an increase in air pressure

28. The motion of a Foucault pendulum provides evidence of (1) (2) (3) (4)

242

the Sun’s rotation. the Sun’s revolution. Earth’s rotation. Earth’s revolution.

Self-Evaluation Test with Answer Explanations 29. The cross sections show a three-stage sequence in the development of a glacial feature.

Self-Evaluation Test

More sediments

Block of glacial ice

Melting ice block

Glacial till or outwash

Stage 1

Stage 2

Stage 3

Which glacial feature has formed by the end of stage 3? (1) (2) (3) (4)

kettle lake finger lake drumlin parallel scratches

30. Scientists have inferred the structure of Earth’s interior mainly by analyzing (1) (2) (3) (4)

the Moon’s interior. the Moon’s composition. Earth’s surface features. Earth’s seismic data.

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CliffsTestPrep Regents Earth Science: The Physical Setting Workbook

Force of Gravity

Force of Gravity

31. Which graph best represents the force of gravity between Earth and the Sun during one revolution of the Earth around the Sun?

J F M A M J J A S O N D

J F M A M J J A S O N D

Month (3) Force of Gravity

Force of Gravity

Month (1)

J F M A M J J A S O N D

Month (2)

J F M A M J J A S O N D

Month (4)

32. The best evidence that Earth rotates is provided by the (1) (2) (3) (4)

location of mid-oceanic ridge volcanoes and the distribution of index fossils. movement of Foucault pendulums and the Coriolis Effect on air movement. pattern of changing seasons and the depth of meteor impacts. rate of uranium-238 decay and changes in atmospheric composition.

33. A square meter of surface of which of these natural areas would most likely absorb the most insolation during a clear day? (1) (2) (3) (4)

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a fast-moving river a dark-green forest a beach with white sand a snow-covered field

Self-Evaluation Test with Answer Explanations

50

Stream 0 10

X Y

X

50

Y

50

am

re

St

(1)

(3)

X 100

100

X

Y 50

Y

Stream

Stream

(2)

(4)

35. The data represent some of the weather conditions at a New York State location on a winter morning.

Air temperature (dry bulb temperature)

0°C

Relative humidity

81%

Present weather

snow

What was the dew point at this time? (1) (2) (3) (4)

1°C 2°C –3°C –5°C

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Self-Evaluation Test

34. The four streams shown on the topographic maps have the same volume between X and Y. The distance from X to Y is also the same. All the maps are drawn to the same scale and have the same contour interval. Which map shows the stream with the greatest velocity between points X and Y?

CliffsTestPrep Regents Earth Science: The Physical Setting Workbook

Part B–1 Answer all questions in this part. Directions (36–50): For each statement or question, write on your answer bubble sheet the number of the word or expression that, of those given, best completes the statement or answers the question. Some questions may require the use of the Earth Science Reference Tables. Base your answers to questions 36 and 37 on the graph. The graph shows the recorded change in water level (ocean tides) at a coastal city in the northeastern United States during one day.

Tidal Changes +6 +5

Height of Water (feet)

+4 +3 +2 +1 Average Water Level –1 –2 –3 –4 –5 –6

246

4 6 a.m.

8 10 12 2 Noon

Time of Day

4

6 8 10 12 p.m.

Midnignt

Midnignt

12 2

Self-Evaluation Test with Answer Explanations 36. Which inference about tides is best made from this graph? The hourly rate of tidal change is always the same. The rate of tidal change is greatest at high tide. The tidal change is a random event. The tidal change is cyclic.

37. According to the pattern shown on the graph, the next high tide will occur on the following day at approximately (1) (2) (3) (4)

12:30 A.M. 2:00 A.M. 3:15 A.M. 4:00 A.M.

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Self-Evaluation Test

(1) (2) (3) (4)

CliffsTestPrep Regents Earth Science: The Physical Setting Workbook Base your answers to questions 38 and 39 on the maps shown, which show changes in the distribution of land and water in the Mediterranean Sea region that scientists believe took place over a period of 6 million years.

Eurasia Atlantic Ocean Mediterranean Sea

Africa About 10 Million Years Ago

Eurasia Atlantic Ocean

Land bridge Africa About 8 to 5.5 Million Years Ago Evaporation from Mediterranean Sea

Eurasia Atlantic Ocean

Strait of Gibraltar opens Africa About 4 Million Years Ago Mediterranean Sea Refills with Atlantic Ocean Water

248

Self-Evaluation Test with Answer Explanations 38. Which type of rock was precipitated from seawater as the Mediterranean Sea evaporated between 8 million years ago and 5.5 million years ago?

Self-Evaluation Test

(1) (2) (3) (4)

rock salt basalt sandstone metaconglomerate

39. During which geologic time period did the changes shown in the maps take place? (1) (2) (3) (4)

Cambrian Cretaceous Permian Neogene

40. The diagram shows tubes A and B partly filled with equal volumes of round plastic beads of uniform size. The beads in tube A are smaller than the beads in tube B.Water was placed in tube A until the pore spaces were filled. The drain valve was then opened, and the amount of time for the water to drain from the tube was recorded. The amount of water that remained around the beads was then calculated and recorded. Data table 1 shows the measurements recorded using tube A.

Tube A

Tube B

Drain valves Data Table 1: Tube A water required to fill pore spaces

124 mL

time required for draining

2.1 sec

water that remained around the beads after draining

36 mL

249

CliffsTestPrep Regents Earth Science: The Physical Setting Workbook If the same procedure was followed with tube B, which data table shows the measurements most likely recorded? (1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

250

Data Table 2: Tube B water required to fill pore spaces

124 mL

time required for draining

1.4 sec

water that remained around the beads after draining

26 mL

Data Table 2: Tube B water required to fill pore spaces

168 mL

time required for draining

3.2 sec

water that remained around the beads after draining

46 mL

Data Table 2: Tube B water required to fill pore spaces

124 mL

time required for draining

3.2 sec

water that remained around the beads after draining

36 mL

Data Table 2: Tube B water required to fill pore spaces

168 mL

time required for draining

1.4 sec

water that remained around the beads after draining

36 mL

Self-Evaluation Test with Answer Explanations Base your answers to questions 41 through 43 on the following passage and on your knowledge of Earth science.

Scientists studying a Sun-like star named Ogle-Tr-3 discovered a planet that is, on the average, 3.5 million kilometers away from the star’s surface. The planet was discovered as a result of observing a cyclic decrease in the brightness of Ogle-Tr-3 every 28.5 hours. The changing brightness is the result of the planet blocking some of the starlight when it is between Ogle-Tr-3 and Earth. This observation allowed scientists to find not only the planet, but also to determine the planet’s mass and density. The mass has been calculated to be approximately 159 times the mass of Earth. The planet is only 20% as dense as Jupiter. Scientists think that this low density is the result of being very close to Ogle-Tr-3. 41. Compared to the period of revolution of Mercury and Venus, this newly discovered planet’s period of revolution is (1) (2) (3) (4)

shorter than both Mercury’s and Venus’s. longer than both Mercury’s and Venus’s. shorter than Mercury’s but longer than Venus’s. longer than Mercury’s but shorter than Venus’s.

42. The density of the discovered planet has been estimated to be approximately (1) (2) (3) (4)

5.5 g/cm3. 2.0 g/cm3. 1.3 g/cm3. 0.3 g/cm3.

43. The planet was discovered when it passed between Earth and the star Ogle-Tr-3. Which event in our solar system results from a similar type of alignment of the Moon between Earth and the Sun? (1) (2) (3) (4)

summer solstice winter solstice solar eclipse lunar eclipse

251

Self-Evaluation Test

A Newly Discovered Planet

CliffsTestPrep Regents Earth Science: The Physical Setting Workbook Base your answers to questions 44 through 46 on the satellite image here, which shows a Northern Hemisphere hurricane, and on your knowledge of Earth science.

44. What is the usual surface wind pattern around the eye of Northern Hemisphere hurricanes? (1) (2) (3) (4)

clockwise and outward clockwise and inward counterclockwise and outward counterclockwise and inward

45. Which air mass is normally associated with the formation of hurricanes? (1) (2) (3) (4)

continental tropical maritime tropical continental polar maritime polar

46. Clouds form in the hurricane because the air is (1) (2) (3) (4)

252

sinking, expanding, and cooling. sinking, compressing, and warming. rising, expanding, and cooling. rising, compressing, and warming.

Self-Evaluation Test with Answer Explanations 47. When the eye of this hurricane reaches 43° N latitude, this hurricane will most likely be pushed by planetary winds toward the northwest. northeast. southwest. southeast.

Base your answers to questions 48 through 50 on the diagram here, which shows details of a section of a rift valley in the center of a mid-ocean ridge. The vertical lines in the diagram represent faults and fractures within the ocean floor bedrock.

Depth Below Sea Level (km)

Lava flows

2.5 3

3.5 4

0

1

2

3 4 Width (km)

5

6

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Self-Evaluation Test

(1) (2) (3) (4)

CliffsTestPrep Regents Earth Science: The Physical Setting Workbook 48. What will be the primary result of the continuation of the geologic processes indicated at this location? (1) (2) (3) (4)

Earth’s magnetic field will reverse direction. Continental crust will be forced downward. Earth’s circumference will increase. New oceanic crust will form.

49. Which type of crustal plate boundary is shown in this diagram? (1) (2) (3) (4)

divergent convergent universal transform

50. The dark-colored lava flows shown in the diagram were pushed from the magma chamber onto the surface of the ocean floor. Which characteristics are present in the solid rock that formed when the lava flows cooled? (1) (2) (3) (4)

254

generally small grain size and mafic composition generally small grain size and felsic composition generally large grain size and mafic composition generally large grain size and felsic composition

Self-Evaluation Test with Answer Explanations

Part B–2 Directions (51–63): Record your answers in the spaces provided. Some questions may require the use of the Earth Science Reference Tables.

51. The atmospheric conditions at a given location are represented by the weather station model.

46 1 4

• 45

096 –6 .15

Fill in the correct information for each variable listed, based on this weather station model. Air pressure:

_____ mb

Air temperature:

_____ °F

Amount precipitation during last six hours:

_____ inch(es)

Cloud cover:

_____%

Present weather

__________________________________

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Self-Evaluation Test

Answer all questions in this part.

CliffsTestPrep Regents Earth Science: The Physical Setting Workbook Base your answers to questions 52 and 53 on the weather map provided, which shows surface air-pressure readings, in millibars, at various locations in the United States and Canada. The 1020-millibar isobars have been drawn and labeled.

Surface Air Pressures 1018 1022 1021

1020

1020 1022

1028

1022 1024

1027

1026

1029

1023 1028 1026 1020 1023 1024 1020

1020 1020

1025 1025 1028 1026 1024 1020

1014

1024

1019 1015

1025

1026

1024 1023

1019 1010

1017

1022 1020

1021

1018

1023

1020

1014

52. Draw the 1024- and 1028-millibar isobars on the weather map provided. 53. What weather instrument was most likely used to measure these air pressures?

256

1016

1022 1020

1006 1015

1018 1022 1013

1025 1024 1020 1024 1022

1019

1018

1011

1021

1015

1024

1024 1020

1018

1018 1016

1024

1019

1016

1018

1022

1024

1020

1009

1020

0

2 10

1019

1017

1024

1029

1015 1012

1015 1015

1023

1022

1018

1023 1022

1012

1019

Self-Evaluation Test with Answer Explanations

Key I

Igneous rock

Contact metamorphism

II

III

IV V VI

VII

VIII

IX 54. Number the relative age of rock units VII, VIII, and IX from 1 to 3, with number 1 indicating the oldest rock and number 3 indicating the youngest rock. 55. The fossil shown in rock unit VIII is a member of an extinct group of fossils. State two other index fossils that are also members of the same group of extinct fossils. 56. Based on the fossils shown in the limestone and shale layers, state the type of environment in which these sedimentary rocks were deposited.

257

Self-Evaluation Test

Base your answers to questions 54 through 56 on the cross section of the bedrock outcrop shown and on your knowledge of Earth science. Index fossils found in some of the rock units are shown. The rock units are labeled I through IX.

CliffsTestPrep Regents Earth Science: The Physical Setting Workbook Base your answers to questions 57 through 59 on the cross section shown and on your knowledge of Earth science. The cross section shows a portion of Earth’s interior. Layer X is part of Earth’s interior.

Continental crust Lithosphere

Sea level

Oceanic crust

Layer X

Plastic mantle

(Not drawn to scale) 57. Identify the texture and relative density of the granitic bedrock of the continental crust and the basaltic bedrock of the oceanic crust. 58. The minerals biotite and amphibole may be found in igneous bedrock of both the oceanic crust and the continental crust. Identify two other minerals commonly found in the basaltic oceanic crust. 59. Identify the part of Earth’s lithosphere represented by layer X.

258

Self-Evaluation Test with Answer Explanations

Earth’s Crustal Plate Boundaries one major type is

one major type is

one major type is divergent boundary

A

transform boundary

where two plates

where two plates

where two plates

B

move together

slide past one another

an example is the Rift Valley in eastern Africa

an example is

D three types are

where oceanic and continental plates collide

where two oceanic plates collide

where

this occurs

this occurs

this occurs

with subduction

without subduction

with subduction

an example is

an example is

an example is

the Japanese island arc

the Himalayas

E

C

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Self-Evaluation Test

Base your answers to questions 60 and 61 on the diagram, which shows an incomplete concept map identifying the types of plate boundaries. Information in the boxes labeled A, B, C, D, and E has been deliberately omitted.

CliffsTestPrep Regents Earth Science: The Physical Setting Workbook

60. On the chart provided, write the information that should be placed in the boxes labeled A, B, and C that will correctly complete those portions of the concept map. Letter

Information That Should Be Placed in Each Box

A B C

61. On the geographic map provided, write the letters D and E on the plate boundary locations where the indicated movements are occurring. Write the letters approximately the same size as shown on the concept map and locate the letters directly on the plate boundary.

Hawaii Hot Spot

260

Self-Evaluation Test with Answer Explanations

December 26 Earliest dinosaurs December 19 The first vertebrates (animals with a backbone) September 10 The formation of Earth and our solar system January 1 The Big Bang

December 30 September 25 The extinction The formation of of dinosaurs the oldest microfossil

December 31 late evening The first humans

62. State one piece of evidence used by scientists to support the theory that the Big Bang event occurred. 63. How many million years of Earth’s geologic history elapsed between the event that occurred on September 10 and the event that occurred on September 25 in this model?

261

Self-Evaluation Test

Base your answers to questions 62 and 63 on the calendar model shown here of the inferred history of the universe and on your knowledge of Earth science. The 12-month time line begins with the Big Bang on January 1 and continues to the present time, which is represented by midnight on December 31. Several inferred events and the relative times of their occurrence have been placed in the appropriate locations on the time line.

CliffsTestPrep Regents Earth Science: The Physical Setting Workbook

Part C Answer all questions in this part. Directions (64–78): Record your answers in the spaces provided. Some questions may require the use of the Earth Science Reference Tables.

64. Part of which generalized New York State landscape region is drained by the Susquehanna River and its tributaries? Base your answers to questions 65 and 66 on the data table here, which shows the amount of water vapor, in grams per cubic meter, that will saturate 1 cubic meter of air at different temperatures.

262

Air Temperature (°C)

Water Vapor (g/m3)

–20

1

–10

2

0

5

10

9

20

17

30

29

40

50

Self-Evaluation Test with Answer Explanations 65. On the grid provided in your answer booklet, construct a line graph of the data, following the directions given.

Self-Evaluation Test

–20

–10

0

10 20 30 Air Temperature (°C)

40

50

a Place the name of the correct variable along the y-axis. Include the correct units. b Mark an appropriate numerical scale showing equal intervals along the y-axis. c Plot the amount of water that will saturate 1 cubic meter of air at the temperatures shown in the data table. Connect the points with a smooth, curved line. 66. Describe the relationship between the air temperature and the amount of water vapor necessary to saturate the air.

263

CliffsTestPrep Regents Earth Science: The Physical Setting Workbook Base your answers to questions 67 through 68 on the data table given here and on your knowledge of Earth science. Iridium is an element rarely found in Earth’s lithosphere but commonly found in asteroids. The data table shows the abundance of iridium, in parts per billion (ppb), found in a rock core sample taken in Carlsbad, New Mexico.

264

Depth below Earth’s Surface (m)

Iridium Abundance (ppb)

0

0

50

0

100

0.5

105

0.5

113

0.5

115

13.5

119

0.5

120

0.25

128

0.25

135

0

Self-Evaluation Test with Answer Explanations 67. On the grid, construct a line graph of iridium abundance at various depths. Place an X to show the iridium abundance at each depth shown on the data table. Connect the Xs with a line.

Self-Evaluation Test

Iridium Abundance at Various Depths Below Earth’s Surface Earth’s Surface

0 5 10 15 20 25 30 35

Depth Below Earth’s Surface (meters)

40 45 50 55 60 65 70 75 80 85 90 95 100 105 110 115 120 125 130 135 140 145 150 0

0.5

1.0

1.5

2.0

2.5

3.0

3.5

4.0

4.5

5.0

5.5

6.0

6.5

7.0

7.5

8.0

8.5

9.0

9.5

10.0

10.5

11.5 12.5 13.5 14.5 15.0 11.0 12.0 13.0 14.0

Iridium Abundance (ppb)

265

CliffsTestPrep Regents Earth Science: The Physical Setting Workbook 68. The high concentration of iridium in this rock core sample has been matched to rock layers that have been dated to the geologic time when dinosaur extinction from an asteroid impact may have occurred. Between which two geologic time periods did this inferred extinction occur? 69. Other than iridium in the rock layers, what surface feature was most likely created when this asteroid impacted Earth’s crust? Base your answers to questions 70 through 73 on the passage that follows, the map in your answer booklet, and your knowledge of Earth science. The map shows ocean depths, measured in meters, off the coast of Massachusetts. Points A, B, and C represent locations on the ocean floor. The Stellwagen Bank discussed in the passage is lightly shaded and labeled on the map.

The Stellwagen Bank One of the most exciting adventures for a visitor to Cape Cod, Massachusetts, is going on a whale watch. Large boats leave port two to three times each day carrying passengers to a specific location in the Atlantic Ocean to see the whales. How do the captains of the boats know where to find the whales? The answer is simple. They look for the whales over an area known as the Stellwagen Bank, which is a large undersea deposit of unsorted sand and gravel. The Stellwagen Bank is inferred by scientists to have formed during the Pleistocene Epoch from the slow retreat of massive Ice Age glaciers across this area. Today, cool ocean currents come from the north and flow up and over the Stellwagen Bank. These currents bring nutrients to the surface from deep in the ocean, providing food for oceanic phytoplankton (small plants). Small ocean creatures and fish feed on the phytoplankton. Whales can be found in abundance at the Stellwagen Bank feeding on the many ocean lifeforms.

266

Self-Evaluation Test with Answer Explanations 70. Most whale watching takes place at 42° 25N and 70° 25' W. On the map, place an X at this location.

70° 30'

70° 15'

70° 00'

220

42° 30'

180

70° 45'

140 16 0

71° 00'

20 0

60 0 20 0 18

n Bank age llw

A

42° 15'

80

80

St e

42° 30'

12

C

160 140

0

60

40

42° 15'

60 8 0

40

42° 00'

20

Massachusetts

B

0

10

40

42° 00'

20 od

eC

41° 45'

Cap

71° 00'

70° 45'

70° 30'

Isoline interval = 20 meters

70° 15'

41° 45'

70° 00' 0

10

N 20 km

71. Identify the most probable cold ocean current causing the upwelling of nutrients over the Stellwagen Bank. 72. What evidence indicates that the ocean floor has a steep slope at point C? 73. Calculate the average ocean-floor gradient between point A and point B. Label your answer with the correct units.

267

Self-Evaluation Test

Whale Watchers’ Map

CliffsTestPrep Regents Earth Science: The Physical Setting Workbook Base your answers to questions 74 through 76 on the cross section and on your knowledge of Earth science. The cross section shows a portion of Earth’s crust. The age, in millions of years, of each boundary between the different sedimentary rock layers is shown. The age of boundary X between the sedimentary rock and the metamorphic rock is not shown. Assume no overturning has occurred. Age (millions of years)

323 362 418 443

4,000 meters above sea level Sedimentary rock layers Boundary X Metamorphic rock Sea level

74. Identify the geologic feature represented by boundary X. 75. Describe how the rock type below boundary X was formed. 76. Identify by name one index fossil that existed when the limestone rock shown in the cross section was being formed. Base your answers to questions 77 and 78 on the data table, which lists the apparent diameter of the Sun, measured in minutes and seconds of a degree, as it appears to an observer in New York State. (Apparent diameter is how large an object appears to an observer.) Date

Apparent Diameter ( ' = minutes; " = seconds)

January 1

32'32"

February 10

32'25"

March 20

32'07"

April 20

31'50"

May 30

31'33"

June 30

31'28"

August 10

31'34"

September 20

31'51"

November 10

32'18"

December 30

32'32"

268

Self-Evaluation Test with Answer Explanations 77. On the grid provided, graph the data shown on the table by marking with a dot the apparent diameter of the Sun for each date listed and connecting the dots with a smooth, curved line.

Self-Evaluation Test

Apparent Diameter of the Sun

Apparent Diameter

32'40" 32'30" 32'20" 32'10" 32'00" 31'50" 31'40" 31'30" 31'20" 1 10 20 30 10 20 1 10 20 30 10 20 30 10 20 30 10 20 30 10 20 30 10 20 30 10 20 30 10 20 30 10 20 30 10 20 30

Jan

Feb

Mar

Apr

May

Jun

Jul

Aug

Sep

Oct

Nov

Dec

Date

78. Explain why the apparent diameter of the Sun changes throughout the year as Earth revolves around the Sun.

269

CliffsTestPrep Regents Earth Science: The Physical Setting Workbook

Answer Key 1. 2

26. 4

2. 4

27. 3

3. 1

28. 3

4. 2

29. 1

5. 3

30. 4

6. 1

31. 3

7. 3

32. 2

8. 2

33. 2

9. 3

34. 2

10. 2

35. 3

11. 3

36. 4

12. 1

37. 2

13. 1

38. 1

14. 2

39. 4

15. 2

40. 1

16. 1

41. 1

17. 4

42. 4

18. 2

43. 3

19. 4

44. 4

20. 1

45. 2

21. 3

46. 3

22. 2

47. 2

23. 3

48. 4

24. 1

49. 1

25. 2

50. 1

270

Self-Evaluation Test with Answer Explanations

Answer Explanations

2. Correct Answer: (4) According to the Earth Science Reference Tables, Scheme for Metamorphic Rock Identification, phyllite is a metamorphic rock. Phyllite is described as being foliated and having microscopic mica crystals. Generally, glass textures are associated with igneous rock, and clastic textures with rocks made of other pieces of rock—typically sedimentary in nature. 3. Correct Answer: (1) According to the Earth Science Reference Tables, Geologic History of New York State—Time Distribution of Fossils, the fossil is identified as the nautiloid Centroceras (F), which lived during the middle Devonian period and coexisted with trilobite Phacops (C). (Geologic History of NYS) 4. Correct Answer: (2) The Foucault pendulum and the Coriolis Effect are commonly used to illustrate the Earth’s rotation. A pendulum set in motion will swing back and forth in a straight line. Over time, the rotation of the Earth will cause the momentum of the pendulum to appear to change its path in a circular motion opposite the direction of the Earth’s rotation. If the Earth did not rotate, the pendulum wouldn’t appear to change its course. (Earth’s Motions and Their Effects) 5. Correct Answer: (3) According to the Earth Science Reference Tables, Inferred Properties of Earth’s Interior-Density, the crust has a density of 2.7 to 3.0 g/cm3, while the density of the mantle ranges from 3.3 to 5.5 g/cm3 and the outer core ranges from 9.9 to 12.1 g/cm3. (Earth’s Interior) 6. Correct Answer: (1) The altitude of Polaris will always equal the observer’s latitude. If one views Polaris at an altitude of 42 degrees, she must be located at 42 degrees north latitude. According to the Earth Science Reference Tables, Jamestown is located at 42 degrees north latitude. (Stellar Astronomy) 7. Correct Answer: (3) According to the Earth Science Reference Tables, Inferred Properties of Earth’s Interior, the temperature at the Earth’s mantle-core boundary is about 5,000° C. Referencing this temperature with the Earth Science Reference Tables, Luminosity and Temperature of Stars, the Sun’s temperature is the closest choice, having a temperature of just over 5,000° C. (Stellar Astronomy & Earth’s Interior) 8. Correct Answer: (2) Most tornadoes are formed in late winter, early spring. At this time, air masses that form north of the United States are still very cold, but the air masses that form south of the United States by the tropics have already begun to get warm. When the continental polar (cold and dry) air from the north meets the maritime tropical (moist and warm) air from the south in the middle of the United States, violent tornadoes form. (Hurricanes and Tornadoes)

271

Self-Evaluation Test

1. Correct Answer: (2) According to the Earth Science Reference Tables, Solar System Data, Pluto has a diameter of 2,300 km. By comparison, the Earth’s Moon, Mercury, and Mars have diameters of 3, 476 km, 4,860 km, 6,787 km, respectively. (The Solar System)

CliffsTestPrep Regents Earth Science: The Physical Setting Workbook 9. Correct Answer: (3) If the two cities are located at the same latitude, then they would share the same statistics for choices 1, 3, and 4. They may not share the same distance from a large body of water. To view an example, turn to page 3 in the reference tables. Albany and Buffalo are located at approximately the same latitude; however, Buffalo is right on Lake Erie, whereas Albany is not located near any large bodies of water. (Factors Affecting Climates) 10. Correct Answer: (2) According to the Earth Science Reference Tables, Geologic History of New York State, the Cambrian Period ended 490 million years ago, and the Silurian Period began 443 million years ago. The unconformity was probably formed by the erosion of the rock layer. The time interval between the end of the Cambrian Period and the beginning of the Silurian Period is 47 million years. (Relative Dating) 11. Correct Answer: (3) Sandstone is a clastic sedimentary rock formed from the compaction and cementation of sand particles. Choices 1 and 2 refer to igneous processes, and choice 4 refers to metamorphic. (Sedimentary Rocks) 12. Correct Answer: (1) The best reflectors of insolation are land surfaces that are both light colored and smooth. Conversely, the best absorbers of insolation are land surfaces that are both dark colored and rough. (Factors Affecting Climate) 13. Correct Answer: (1) Locate the gradient formula on the cover of the reference tables. gradient =

change in field value distance

The change in field value is the difference in the contour lines. The value of X = 380 m, and the value of Y = 300 m. Subtract the two and the change in field value = 80 m. Next find the distance by taking a separate piece of paper, marking off points X and Y, and then holding it up to the map scale. You will notice that the distance is 2 km. 80 m/2 km = 40 m/km. (Topographic Maps) 14. Correct Answer: (2) Turn to the Earth Science Reference Tables, Geologic History of New York State.You will notice that the Archean and the Proterozoic are part of the Pre-Cambrian Eon. The Pre-Cambrian was followed by the Phanerozoic, which contained the Paleozoic, Mesozoic, and Cenozoic, respectively. (Absolute Dating) 15. Correct Answer: (2) According to the Earth Science Reference Tables—Scheme for Igneous Rock Identification, granite would have a composition containing all of the following minerals, potassium feldspar, quartz, plagioclase feldspar, biotite, and amphibole. By process of elimination, gabbro, andesite, and basalt can be eliminated as possible rock types. The only other rock types that could possibly contain all three of the above minerals are pegmatite, rhyolite, pumice, and obsidian. (Igneous Rocks) 16. Correct Answer: (1) According to the Earth Science Reference Tables, Relationship of Transported Particle Size to Water Velocity, there is a direct relationship between stream velocity and its ability to carry sediments. This increases its ability to erode. Thus, a decrease in stream velocity will result in an increase in the deposition of sediments. (Deposition)

272

Self-Evaluation Test with Answer Explanations

18. Correct Answer: (2) According to the Earth Science Reference Tables, Properties of Common Minerals, biotite mica (K(MgFe)3AlSi3O10(OH)2) contains iron and magnesium, but muscovite mica (KAlSi3O10(OH)2) does not. (Minerals) 19. Correct Answer: (4) When the Moon is at position 1, an observer from Earth would see the rightbottom half of the Moon. From this point of view, the Moon would be mostly lit up, with a sliver of dark on the left hand side. Try covering the half of the Moon not seen by Earth observers. See the connection? (Lunar Motions and Their Effects) 20. Correct Answer: (1) Sample (1) exhibits large grain sizes and pore spaces, making it highly permeable to water. The infiltration rate will be the greatest in this sample because water will be able to flow through it with little frictional resistance. (Porosity, Permeability, Capillarity) 21. Correct Answer: (3) Wind is caused by pressure difference between areas. Day 3 shows the greatest pressure difference (10.9 mb) and will, therefore, have the greatest wind velocity. (Weather) 22. Correct Answer: (2) Arid regions are characterized by sparse amounts of vegetation and sharper land features. Humid areas are generally more rounded. Over time this may lead to extensive erosion of the land surface resulting in the exposure and weathering of the underlying bedrock. (Erosion) 23. Correct Answer: (3) According to the Earth Science Reference Tables, Geologic History of New York State–Life on Earth column, the complexity of life has progressed from simple marine organisms in the late Precambrian Eon to the evolution of modern humans, mastodons, and mammoths in the Cenozoic Era. (Fossil Evidence) 24. Correct Answer: (1) The photograph illustrated folded bedrock that must have formed due to compressional forces generated due to a collision between crustal plates. (Plate Tectonics) 25. Correct Answer: (2) The question can be answered by locating 25% on the y-axis of the graph, sliding over to where 25% intersects the curve and moving down to 2.6 billion years. The understanding behind the answer involves counting half-lives. 25% represents two half-lives and according to the Earth Science Reference Tables page 1, each half-life for potassium takes 1.3 billion years. Therefore, (2 half-lives) × (1.3 billion years) = 2.6 billion years. (Absolute Dating)

273

Self-Evaluation Test

17. Correct Answer: (4) You must use the Earth Science Reference Tables, Generalized Landscapes Regions of NYS and Generalized Bedrock Geology of NYS. First, use the bedrock information to locate all four rivers. Then see what type of landscape feature surrounds the rivers. Notice the Genesee river spans between the Erie-Ontario Lowlands (Plains) and the Allegheny Plateau. Knowing that plains are at a lower elevation than a plateau and that rivers flow toward lower elevations, you can see from the map on the reference table that the Genesee River must flow northward. Applying a similar analysis to the Hudson River, you can see it spans the Adirondack Mountains to the Hudson-Mohawk Lowlands and eventually into the Atlantic Ocean. The elevations decrease as you move southward, so the Hudson River flows southward. The Niagra River flows between Lake Erie, which is reported at an elevation of 175 m, and Lake Ontario, reported at an elevation of 75 m. Lower elevations exist as you move north, and that’s the direction this river flows. The St. Lawrence River begins at the northeastern end of Lake Ontario. Where it eventually empties into is not seen; however, you should be aware that it empties into the Atlantic Ocean. Because the ocean, being at sea level has an elevation of zero meters, Lake Ontario is at a higher elevation. Therefore, the St. Lawrence would flow northward, away from Lake Ontario. (Landscapes)

CliffsTestPrep Regents Earth Science: The Physical Setting Workbook 26. Correct Answer: (4) New York State’s winter occurs when the Southern Hemisphere receives direct insolation from the Sun. In the diagram, you can see that the North Pole is tilted away from the Sun and the South Pole is tilted toward the Sun. The Sun’s direct insolation is being received by the Tropic of Capricorn 23.5 degrees south of the Equator. That is why choice (4) illustrates winter time for the Northern Hemisphere. (Seasons) 27. Correct Answer: (3) Layer X (referred to as topsoil) has a high percentage of humus. Humus is the material that results from the decomposition of organic matter (decomposers break down dead organisms and return their nutrients to the soil). As the decomposition increases, the amount of humus increases, making the soil thicker and more fertile. (Soil) 28. Correct Answer: (3) A Foucault pendulum set in motion will swing back and forth in a straight line. Over time, the rotation of the earth will cause the momentum of the pendulum to change its path in a circular motion opposite the direction of the Earth’s rotation. If the Earth did not rotate, the pendulum would not change course. (Earth’s Motion and Their Effects) 29. Correct Answer: (1) Kettle refers to the depression that was created by buried glacial ice. As the buried ice melts, it fills the depression with water to form a kettle lake. (Glaciers) 30. Correct Answer: (4) The Earth’s interior is deep, and the temperatures and pressure are too great to take actual measurements. The information we have regarding the Earth’s interior (you will find this information in the Earth Science Reference Tables) we have from seismic (P- and S-wave) data. (Earthquakes) 31. Correct Answer: (3) The force of gravity between two celestial bodies is inversely proportional to the distance between them. The Earth is farthest from the sun during the summer months in the Northern Hemisphere and the least during the winter. Thus, it would be expected that the gravitational attraction between them will be the highest during the winter and least during the summer. (The Solar System) 32. Correct Answer: (2) The motion of Foucault’s pendulum, air currents, and projectiles caused by the Coriolis Effect provides evidence of the Earth’s rotation, for they would not be observed if the Earth were a stationary body. (Earth’s Motions and Their Effects) 33. Correct Answer: (2) Energy is best absorbed by dark substances (low reflectivity) with a great amount of surface area. (Energy Sources for Earth Systems) 34. Correct Answer: (2) The gradient increases as the contour lines get closer together. Choice 2 shows the stream crossing over the most contour lines. In addition, the lines are very close together, which implies that it has a steep slope. (Topographic Maps and Landscapes) 35. Correct Answer: (3) According to the Earth Science Reference Tables, Dewpoint Temperatures, in order to determine the dew point, the dry-bulb temperature and its difference from the wet-bulb temperature must be known. On the same page of the Earth Science Reference Tables, Relative Humidity, a relative humidity of 81% corresponds to a dry-bulb temperature of 0°C and a wet-bulb difference of 1°C. Using these values in conjunction with the dew point temperature table yields a dew point of –3°C. (Atmosphere) 36. Correct Answer: (4) Because the tidal changes repeat in a predictable manner from day to day, they can be considered to be cyclic in nature. (Graphs)

274

Self-Evaluation Test with Answer Explanations

38. Correct Answer: (1) According to the Earth Science Reference Tables, Scheme for Sedimentary Rock Formation, only rock salt can precipitate from evaporating seawater. Basalt is an igneous rock formed from the cooling and solidification of magma. Sandstone is a clastic sedimentary rock formed from the deposition, compaction, and cementation of sand particles. Metaconglomerate is a metamorphic rock formed as conglomerate is subjected to heat and pressure. (Sedimentary Rocks) 39. Correct Answer: (4) The events pictured in the diagram occurred between 10 million and 4 million years ago. According to the Earth Science Reference Tables, Geologic History of New York State, this time rage falls within the Neogene Period, which began 24 million years ago and ended 1.6 million years ago. (Geologic History of NYS) 40. Correct Answer: (1) Each piece of data measures a different aspect of groundwater. The amount of water that will fill up the beads refers to the porosity of the beads. Porosity is unaffected by bead size, so therefore the two samples will have the same porosity. The amount of time the water will take to drain refers to the permeability of the beads. Because the beads in tube B are larger, they will have greater permeability and, therefore, drain the water faster (which is why the time went down). The amount of water retention is also dependent on the size of the beads. Smaller beads tend to retain more water. Because tube B contains larger beads, there will be less water retention. (Porosity, Permeability, Capillarity) 41. Correct Answer: (1) The passage states that the planet is 3.5 million kilometers away from the star. By looking at the Earth Science Reference Tables, Solar System Data, you will see that Mercury is 57.9 million kilometers from our Sun and that Venus is 108.2 million kilometers from our Sun. The planet from the passage will orbit its star faster than Mercury and Venus orbit our Sun, because the planet from the passage is closer to its star than Mercury and Venus are to our Sun. (The Solar System) 42. Correct Answer: (4) The passage states that the density of the planet is 20% that of Jupiter. According to the Earth Science Reference Tables, Solar System Data, Jupiter’s density is 1.3 g/cm3. (1.3) × (0.20) = 0.26. Rounded to the nearest tenth, the density of the planet from the passage is 0.3 g/cm3. (Density) 43. Correct Answer: (3) A solar eclipse occurs when the Moon passes between the Sun and the Earth. (Lunar Motions and Their Effects) 44. Correct Answer: (4) Since hurricanes represent extreme low-pressure systems, the observed surface wind pattern is counterclockwise and inward in the Northern Hemisphere. (Hurricanes) 45. Correct Answer: (2) In order to form, hurricanes require vast amounts of latent heat energy supplied by warm moist air masses that form over tropical waters. Thus, maritime tropical air masses are most often associated with hurricane formation. (Air Masses) 46. Correct Answer: (3) Clouds form as humid air rises and expands as it passes through air of progressively lower pressure. As the air expands, it cools, causing water vapor to condense around particulate matter (condensation nuclei) to form cloud droplets. (Hurricanes)

275

Self-Evaluation Test

37. Correct Answer: (2) High tides generally occur every 12 hours. High tides also occur one hour later each day due to the revolution of the moon. Thus, if the first high tide was observed at approximately 1:00 A.M., the next high tide on the following day would be expected to occur at approximately 2:00 A.M. (Lunar Motions and Their Effects)

CliffsTestPrep Regents Earth Science: The Physical Setting Workbook 47. Correct Answer: (2) According to the Earth Science Reference Tables, Planetary Wind and Moisture Belts in the Troposphere, southwesterly winds dominate latitudes between 30 and 60 degrees north. Thus, the hurricane would be expected to be steered toward the northeast. (Hurricanes) 48. Correct Answer: (4) Rift valleys are formed along divergent plate boundaries as sections of the Earth’s crust are fractured and separated. Basaltic magma rises up through these fractures to fill the rift valley and create new oceanic crust. (Earth’s Motions and Their Effects) 49. Correct Answer: (1) According to the Earth Science Reference Tables, Tectonic Plates, mid-ocean ridges are associated with divergent plate boundaries. (Plate Tectonics) 50. Correct Answer: (1) Basaltic magma is usually extruded onto the surface along the rift valleys of mid-ocean ridges. According to the Earth Science Reference Tables, Scheme for Igneous Rock Identification, basalt is characterized as having a small (fine) grain size and mafic composition. (Igneous Rocks) 51. Correct Answer: This information can be found in the Earth Science Reference Tables, Weather Map Symbols. The variable answers are temperature = 46°F, visibility = 1/4 mi, present weather = rain, barometric pressure = 1009.6 mb (if the coded pressure reading is less than 500, a 10 is placed in front and a decimal placed between the last two digits), precipitation in last 6 hours = .15 inches, cloud cover = 75%. (Atmosphere) 52. Correct Answer:

Surface Air Pressures 1018 1022 1021 1022

1020

1020 1022

1023 1022

1023 1024 1024 1028

1022 1024 1026

1027

1029 1029

1012

1015 1012

1015 1015 1017 1020 1020

1025

1025 1028

1019

1020

24

1009

1020

0

2 10

1019

1022

1024

10

1024

1021

1015

1018 1022 1013

1024

1024

1016

1021

1018 1020 1026 1018 1023 1028 1028 1024 1025 1026 1026 1024 1019 1025 1024 1020 1020 1023 1024 1024 1015 1020 1019 1022 1020 1016 1024 1018 1023 1018 1018 1023 1016 1018 1014 1011 1022 1019 1022 1010

1017

1014

276

1020

1020

1006 1015

1020

1019

Self-Evaluation Test with Answer Explanations 53. Correct Answer: Barometers at various weather stations across the United States and Canada are used to measure the surface air pressures to construct the isobars on the weather map. (Atmosphere)

55. Correct Answer: According to the Earth Science Reference Tables, Geologic History of New York State, the fossil in layer VIII is Elliptocephala. The other index fossils that are members of the same group, the trilobites, are Cryptolithus and Phacops. (Fossil Evidence) 56. Correct Answer: The environment was most likely an ocean or a shallow sea. The fossil in layer VIII is a trilobite, which were marine organisms. The fossil in layer VII is from the nautiloids group, another marine fossil group. The fossil groups can be found in the Earth Science Reference Tables. Additionally, shale forms from clay, which is generally only found on the seafloor of deep bodies of water. Limestone is formed from shell fragments or precipitates of biological origin, most likely from marine organisms. (Fossil Evidence) 57. Correct Answer: Granite is coarse-grained and less dense, basalt is fine-grained and more dense This question requires you to look in the Earth Science Reference Tables, Scheme for Igneous Rock Identification, which shows that continental granite has a coarse texture and is on the left side (felsic side), which means that it is less dense. Oceanic basalt is listed as having a fine texture, and it is in the right side (mafic side), which means that it is denser. In addition, Inferred Properties of Earth’s Interior, shows that continental granite crust has a density of 2.7 and is, therefore, less dense than oceanic mafic crust, which has a density of 3.0. (Igneous Rocks) 58. Correct Answer: Olivine, pyroxene, and plagioclase feldspar Turn to the Earth Science Reference Tables and locate the Igneous Rock chart. Find basalt and move your finger down to locate the minerals that are commonly found in basalt. They include olivine, pyroxene, and plagioclase feldspar. (Igneous Rocks) 59. Correct Answer: Rigid mantle The Earth Science Reference Tables show that the lithosphere is made up of the crust and the rigid mantle. (Earth’s Interior) 60. Correct Answer: convergent (A); separate (B); two continental plates collide (C). (Plate Tectonics) 61. Correct Answer: Transform boundaries exist in regions where crustal plates slide past one another. According the Earth Science Reference Tables, Tectonic Plates, one such example of a transform boundary is represented by the San Andreas Fault. Subduction zones, or convergent plate boundaries exist in regions where one crustal plate slides beneath a less dense plate. According to the Earth Science Reference Tables, Tectonic Plates, one such example of a convergent boundary is represented by the Peru-Chile Trench. (Plate Tectonics) 62. Correct Answer: Any of the following will be acceptable. ■ ■ ■ ■

Cosmic background radiation remains. There is a redshift in the light from stars in distant galaxies. The apparent expansion of the universe More-distant stars are moving away from Earth at a greater rate than nearby stars. (Origins of the Universe)

277

Self-Evaluation Test

54. Correct Answer: Rock unit VIII = 1, rock unit IX = 2, and rock unit VII = 3. Rock unit VIII is the oldest due to the law of superposition in sedimentary rocks. Rock unit IX is an igneous intrusion that has pushed up through the sedimentary shale according to the law of cross cutting relationships. Finally, the igneous rock is weathered away at the unconformity, and the limestone of rock layer VII was formed. (Relative Dating)

CliffsTestPrep Regents Earth Science: The Physical Setting Workbook 63. Correct Answer: 1,300 million years or 1.3 billion. On the Earth Science Reference Tables, Geologic History of New York State, note that the solar system began 4,600 mya, and the oldest microfossils appeared in the middle Archean about 3,300 mya. 4,600 – 3,300 = 1,300 mya. (Origins of the Universe) 64. Correct Answer: The Allegheny Plateau or The Catskills On the Earth Science Reference Tables, locate the Susquehanna River. Compare its location with the landscape regions. You will notice that the river touches both landscape regions. You can choose either one of the two landscapes as your answer. (Landscapes of NYS) 65. Correct Answer:

50

40

30

20

10

0 –20

–10

0

10 20 30 Air Temperature (°C)

40

50

66. Correct Answer: As air temperature increases, its capacity to hold water vapor also increases. (Atmosphere)

278

Self-Evaluation Test with Answer Explanations 67. Correct Answer:

Self-Evaluation Test

Iridium Abundance at Various Depths Below Earth’s Surface Earth’s Surface

0 5 10 15 20 25 30 35

Depth Below Earth’s Surface (meters)

40 45 50 55 60 65 70 75 80 85 90 95 100 105 110 115 120 125 130 135 140 145 150 0

0.5

1.0

1.5

2.0

2.5

3.0

3.5

4.0

4.5

5.0

5.5

6.0

6.5

7.0

7.5

8.0

8.5

9.0

9.5

10.0

10.5

11.5 12.5 13.5 14.5 15.0 11.0 12.0 13.0 14.0

Iridium Abundance (ppb)

(Graphs) 68. Correct Answer: Cretaceous Period and Tertiary/Paleogene Turn to the Earth Science Reference Tables, Geologic History of New York State. Under the column “Life on Earth,” move down to 65 mya where it’s written, “extinction of dinosaurs.” (Absolute Dating) 69. Correct Answer: Crater When an asteroid impacts the Earth, it leaves behind a large hole or crater leaving evidence that an impact event occurred. (Absolute Dating)

279

CliffsTestPrep Regents Earth Science: The Physical Setting Workbook 70. Correct Answer:

Whale Watchers’ Map 70° 30'

70° 15'

70° 00'

220

42° 30'

180

70° 45'

140 16 0

71° 00'

0 20

60 0 20 0 18

n Bank age llw

A

42° 15'

80

80

XS te

42° 30'

12

C

160 140

0

60

40

42° 15'

60 8 0

42° 00'

20

40

Massachusetts

B

0

10

40

42° 00'

20 41° 45'

e Cap

71° 00'

70° 45'

70° 30'

Isoline interval = 20 meters

70° 15' 0

Cod

41° 45'

70° 00'

N

10

20 km

(Latitude and Longitude) 71. Correct Answer: The Labrador Current. Turn to the Earth Science Reference Tables, Surface Ocean Currents, and locate 42° 25'N and 70° 25'W. You will find the Labrador Current (a cold current) in that location. (Ocean Currents) 72. Correct Answer: The contour lines are very close together at point C, which indicates a steep slope. (Topographic Maps) 73. Correct Answer: 0.5 m/km G = change in field value/distance G = 20 m/40 km G = 0.5 m/km (Topographic Maps)

280

Self-Evaluation Test with Answer Explanations

75. Correct Answer: Since the rock below boundary X is identified as metamorphic rock, turn to the Earth Science Reference Tables and locate the Rock Cycle in Earth’s Crust. The arrows pointing to metamorphic rock indicate the processes forming it, such as heat and/or pressure, and metamorphism (recrystallizing of preexisting rock). (Metamorphic Rocks) 76. Correct Answer: First, locate (in the diagram) which layer is the limestone rock. It’s found realizing that limestone is a type of sedimentary rock and finding the symbol for limestone on the Earth Science Reference Tables, Scheme for Sedimentary Rock Identification. Locating this layer on the diagram, you can see it is between 418 and 443 million years old. Now, turn to pages 8 and 9 of the Reference Tables, Geologic History of NYS. The Silurian Period occurred during the time frame you’re investigating. The index fossils that existed during that time include: Hexameroceras, Eucalyptocrinus, Eurypterus, Cooksonia, Cystiphyllum, and Eospirifer. (Fossil Evidence) 77. Correct Answer:

Apparent Diameter of the Sun

Apparent Diameter

32'40" 32'30" 32'20" 32'10" 32'00" 31'50" 31'40" 31'30" 31'20" 1 10 20 30 10 20 1 10 20 30 10 20 30 10 20 30 10 20 30 10 20 30 10 20 30 10 20 30 10 20 30 10 20 30 10 20 30

Jan

Feb

Mar

Apr

May

Jun

Jul

Aug

Sep

Oct

Nov

Dec

Date 78. Correct Answer: As the Earth revolves around the Sun, it does so in an elliptical manner with the Sun as one focus. As a consequence, the distance from the Earth to the Sun varies. Therefore, the apparent diameter, as shown in the graph, varies in a cyclical manner. (Earth’s Motions and Their Effects)

281

Self-Evaluation Test

74. Correct Answer: The wavy line at boundary X indicates this region has undergone an unconformity known as a buried erosional surface. The unevenness shows that the surface once underwent erosion before having other layers deposited on top of it. (Relative Dating)